four most worrisome side effects associated with the use of aminoglycosides. Nephrotoxicity, neuromuscular blockade, autotoxicity, and teratogenicity. Describe the mechanism by which aminoglycosides exert their effects. They cause irreversible inhibition of the initiation complex through binding of the 30S subunit.
Which organisms are the penicillinase-sensitive penicillins used against? H. influenza, H.
pylori, E. coli, Listeria monocytogenes, Proteus mirabilis, Salmonella, Shigella, and Enterococci. Name two drugs that can be used as prophylaxis against Mycobacterium avium, azithromycin, and rifabutin. What are three concerning side effects associated with the use of linazolid? bone marrow suppression, peripheral neuropathy, and serotonin syndrome.
Which class of antiretroviral medication causes rash and hepatotoxicity? The NNRTIs. The most concerning side effect of clindamycin use is what?
Pseudomembranous colitis. What are the clinical uses of linazolin? Gram-positive species, MRSA, and VRE. Which third-generation cephalosporin is effective against disseminated Lyme disease?
Ceftriaxone. Which antibiotic is used to prophylax for individuals with a high risk of endocarditis undergoing dental or surgical procedures? Amoxicillin.
How does chloramphenicol exert its effects? It blocks peptidyl transferase at the 50S ribosomal subunit. Why is psilostatin administered along with carbapenems? To decrease inactivation of the drug in the renal tubules.
Which enzyme is blocked by ethambutol? to decrease carbohydrate polymerization of the bacterial cell wall. Erebinosal transferase.
Which two macrolides inhibit the cytochrome P450 system? Erythromycin and clarithromycin. What are the penicillinase-sensitive penicillins? amoxicillin, ampicillin, and aminopenicillin.
Which two conditions are the guanosine analogs most effective against? HSV and VZV. How can we decrease the toxicity of to prevent nephrotoxicity?
Give it along with probenicid and IV saline. Aztreanam prevents peptidoglycan cross-linking by binding to which specific protein? Penicillin-binding protein 3. At which ribosomal subunit does clindamycin block peptide transfer?
50S. What's the mechanism by which enfuvertide inhibits viral entry? By binding to GP41, name three common adverse effects associated with the use of penicillin. hypersensitivity reaction, direct Coombs-positive hemolytic anemia, and drug-induced interstitial nephritis. What are three ways by which bacteria can develop resistance against fluoroquinolones?
E-flux pumps, chromosome-encoded mutations in DNA gyrase, and plasmid-mediated resistance. What is the name of the prodrug of ganciclovir, valganciclovir? Name the main antipsudamonal penicillins, piperacillin and ticercillin. What are two of the main side effects of chloroquine use?
Retinopathy and pruritus. Sulfamethoxazole. goes from bacteriostatic to bactericidal if combined with which drug?
Trimethoprim. What are three worrisome side effects associated with the use of dapsone? Hemolysis in a glucosixphosphate dehydrogenase deficient patient, agranulocytosis, and methemoglobinemia.
Which drug is used as prophylaxis against mycobacterium tuberculosis? Isoniazid. What are the penicillinase-resistant penicillins? Dicloxacillin, nafcillin, and oxacillin.
Which tetracycline is best for use in patients with renal failure? Doxycycline. What are some of the worrisome side effects associated with the use of griseo-faldin? It is teratogenic, carcinogenic, it has a disulfiram-like reaction, and it increases the CYP450 system. What is the unique side effect associated with the use of metronidazole outside of the disulfiram-like reaction?
it can cause a metallic taste. A patient with a penicillin allergy or renal insufficiency who cannot tolerate an aminoglycoside can be given what class of antibiotic for a gram-negative infection? Monobactams such as Aztreonam.
Which organism is the main target of penicillinase resistant penicillins? Staph aureus. How does metronidazole exert its effects?
It forms toxic free radical metabolites in the cell, which damages DNA. Why is rifabutin better than rifampin for HIV patients? Because it has less p450 stimulation. Cefepime belongs to which generation?
of cephalosporins. Fourth, name the organisms that aren't typically covered by first to fourth generation cephalosporins. Listeria, MRSA, enterococci, and atypicals such as mycoplasma or chlamydia.
Echinocandins inhibit cell wall synthesis by blocking what? the synthesis of beta-glucan. Are the tetracyclines bacteriostatic or bactericidal?
Bacteriostatic. What type of mutation in rRNA can lead to linazolid resistance? Point mutation. Name the organisms covered by the second generation cephalosporins.
gram-positive cocci, H. influenzae, enterobacter aerogenes, Neisseria species, serratia marcescens, Proteus mirabilis, E. coli, and Klebsiella pneumonia. Aside from pseudomonas species, which category of organisms are the anti-pseudomonas penicillins used against?
Gram-negative rods. How does amphotericin B exert its effects? It binds ergosterol and forms membrane pores.
Linazolid exerts its effects by binding to which ribosomal subunit? 50S, and then prevents formation of the initiation complex. Carbapenems should always be administered with... Which drug to inhibit renal dehydropeptidase 1, psilostatin?
What causes the flushing associated with echinocandin use? Histamine release. Name the four 50S inhibitors.
Chloramphenicol, clindamycin, erythromycin, and linazolid. Chloroquine is not used against which type of plasmodium species? Falsoperum. What is the mechanism of action of streptomycin?
It interferes with the 30S component of the ribosome. Which tetracycline is effective against community acquired MRSA? Doxycycline.
How does ribavirin inhibit the synthesis of guani nucleotides? By competitively inhibiting IMP dehydrogenase. Describe two features that help carbapenems work. They are broad spectrum and beta-lactamase resistant.
A patient with a history of recurrent UTIs can be prophylaxed with which antibiotic? TMPSMX. Fluoroquinolones are effective against which class or bacteria in the GI and GU tract?
Gram-negative rods. Isoniazid decreases the synthesis of which cell wall component in mycobacteria? Mycolic acid Which fluoroquinolone inhibits the CYP450 system? Ciprofloxacin What CNS side effect is possible with carbapenem use? Seizure Aminoglycosides are contraindicated in which autoimmune condition?
Myasthenia gravis What is the treatment? for the lepromidous form of Mycobacterium leprae, long-term dapsone, rifampin, and clofazamine. Why are tetracyclines so effective against rickettsia and chlamydia?
Because it is very good at accumulating intracellularly. Cefdozytin and cefuroxime. belong to which generation of cephalosporins?
Second, what does penicillin bind to as part of its mechanism of action? Penicillin binding proteins, i.e. transpeptidases. Ceftriaxone belongs to which generation of cephalosporins?
Third, what is the mechanism of resistance against isoniazid? mutations that lead to an underexpression of CATG. Why are aminoglycosides ineffective against anaerobes?
Because they require oxygen or uptake. What are two worrisome renal adverse effects when using one of the guanosine analogs and not maintaining proper hydration? Obstructive crystalline nephropathy and acute kidney injury. What is the drug of choice for CMV in immunocompromised patients?
Ganciclovir. Which electrolyte disruption occurs with high doses of trimethoprim? Hyperkalemia.
Which two prokaryotic enzymes are inhibited by fluoroquinolones? topoisomerase 2, and topoisomerase 4. How does penicillin prevent cell wall synthesis? It blocks transpeptidase cross-linking in the cell wall. What are two concerning side effects associated with the use of ganciclovir? Bone marrow suppression and renal toxicity.
Flushing associated with vancomycin can be prevented by pre-treatment with which type of medication? Antihistamine. What's the mechanism by which meraviroc inhibits viral entry into cells?
It binds CCR5 on the surface of T-cells and inhibits any interaction with GP120. Which category of antibiotics? can increase the risk of nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides. Cephalosporins.
Which type of anemia associated with chloramphenicol use is dose-independent, aplastic anemia? Which generation of cephalosporins is ideal against serious gram-negative infections that are resistant to other beta-lactams? Third generation.
What is the mechanism by which bacteria can become resistant to vancomycin? By changing D-A-L-A-D-A-L-A to D-A-L-A-D-L-A-C. What are three concerning adverse effects associated with polymyxin use? Nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity, and respiratory failure. What are two side effects associated with the use of pyrazinamide, hyperuricemia, and hepatotoxicity?
Which two medications started within 48 hours of symptom onset may shorten the duration of influenza A or B? Oseltamivir, or Zanamivir. What can be done with Amphotericin B to minimize the risk of nephrotoxicity? Increased hydration.
Which type of bacteria are the monobactams effective against? Gram-negative rods. When Ganciclovir fails to treat an immunocompromised patient with CMV retinitis, which drug should we try? Foskernet. Cefteroline belongs to which generation of cephalosporins?
Fifth, why is potassium and magnesium supplemented in people taking amphotericin B due to altered renal tubule permeability? What is a major concern in patients over 60 years of age taking fluoroquinolones? tendonitis or tendon rupture. What are the main side effects associated with tetracyclines?
GI distress, teeth discoloration, bone growth inhibition in children, and photosensitivity. How does a virus gain resistance against Foskernet? via a mutated DNA polymerase.
Which carbapenem has a lower risk of seizures? Myropenem. Why can't tetracyclines be taken with anything containing divalent cations?
Because it will inhibit their absorption. Which conditions is metronidazole used for? Giardia, Entamoeba, Trichomonas, Gardnerella vaginalis, Anaerobes, and H.
pylori. What is the mechanism of resistance against the guanosine analog antivirals? A mutated viral thymidine kinase. Which generation of cephalosporins is effective against MRSA?
Fifth generations. Which drug is best against herpes zoster? Famciclovir.
How can we reverse bone marrow suppression caused by the NRTIs? With granulocyte colony stimulating factor and erythropoietin. What can E. coli, enterobacter orogenes, and Klebsiella pneumonia produce that inactivates carbapenems.
Carbapenemase. What makes MRSA resistant to penicillinase-resistant penicillins? It has an altered penicillin-binding protein target site. Which first-generation cephalosporin is used prior to surgery to prevent a staph aureus wound infection.
Cephazolin, which organisms are covered by the first-generation cephalosporins? Gram-positive cocci, Proteus mirabilis, E. coli, and Klebsiella pneumonia.
Polymixins disrupt cell membrane integrity by binding to which component of the bacterial cell? Phospholipids. In which type of pH environment does pyrazinamide work best?
Acidic. What is the treatment for the tuberculoid form of Mycobacterium leprae? Long-term treatment with dapsone and rifampin. For which two conditions does trimethoprim play a prophylactic role? Pneumocystis gerovecchi and toxoplasmosis.
How do macrolides cause arrhythmias? By prolonging the QT interval. What are the two main uses of echinocandins?
Invasive Aspergillosis and Candida. Name the two 30S inhibitors. Aminoglycosides and tetracyclines.
What are the three mechanisms by which bacterial transferase enzymes inactivate aminoglycosides? By acetylation, phosphorylation, or adenylation. Which NS3 or 4A inhibitor can cause photosensitivity reactions? Simeprevir. Which type of infection is clindamycin effective against?
Anaerobic infections and group A strep infections. Which enzyme is inhibited by the sulfonamides? Dihydropteroate synthase. Which class of antiretrovirals tends to increase creatine kinase?
Integrase inhibitors. Pyrazinamide is converted into which active compound? Pyrazinoic acid.
What is the main clinical use of terbinafine? For dermatophytoses, which class of antibiotics are the aminoglycosides synergistic with? Beta-lactams.
What is the mechanism of action of the rifamicins? Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. What are the four main side effects associated with streptomycin use?
tinnitus, vertigo, ataxia, and nephrotoxicity. Vancomycin is bacteriostatic against which organism? C. difficile.
When is dapsone used as a prophylactic agent against pneumocystis gerovecchi? Which phase of the cardiac cycle can fluoroquinolones affect? Thank the QT interval, it can prolong it. Which class of antibiotics is reserved for life-threatening infections? Carbapenems.
Name the five main aminoglycosides. Gentamicin, neomycin, amikacin, tobramycin, and streptomycin. Cephalosporins can lead to a deficiency of which vitamin? Vitamin K What is the mechanism of action of the tetracyclines? They bind to 30S and prevent attachment of aminoacyl tRNA.
What change to the 23S rRNA binding site prevents the binding of macrolides? Methylation Dapsone is similar but structurally distinct from which class of antibiotic? Sulfonamides.
Which third-generation cephalosporin is effective against pseudomonas? Ceftazidine. What is the mechanism of action of turbinifine?
It inhibits squalene epoxidase. Daptomycin. creates transmembrane channels in which type of bacteria? Gram-positive cocci. Which antibiotic is known to reduce the concentration of protease inhibitors?
Rifampin. Aminoglycosides are most effective against which type of infection? Severe gram-negative rod infections. Which class of antifungals is ideal for less serious systemic and local mycosis?
Azoles. Which enzyme is inhibited by trimethoprim? Dihydrofolate reductase.
Vancomycin is only effective against which class of bacteria? Gram positive. Which stage of cell division?
is disrupted by griseofulvin. Mitosis. What is the mechanism of action of flucidazine?
It inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis by converting to 5-FU. How does the tetracycline derivative tygicycle exert its effects? It binds to 30S and inhibits protein synthesis.
What are the four major side effects associated with the use of trimethoprim? Hyperkalemia, leukopenia, megaloblastic anemia, and granulocytopenia. What color can the rifamicins turn body fluids?
Orange. Cefazolin. and cephalexin belong to which generation of cephalosporins? First, what is the mechanism by which plasmodium thalassoperum is resistant to chloroquine? It has a membrane pump that decreases intracellular concentration of the drug.
Through what mechanism does vancomycin inhibit cell wall formation? by binding the DALA-DALA portion of cell wall precursors. Which class of antibiotics work synergistically with the monobactams? Aminoglycosides. Name four well-established side effects associated with the use of vancomycin.
Nephrotoxicity. autotoxicity, thrombophlebitis, and flushing. Which hormone synthesis is inhibited by the azoles? Testosterone.
What are two side effects associated with the use of daptomycin? Myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. What's the mechanism of resistance against chloramphenicol?
Plasmid-encoded acetyltransferase causes inactivation. What is the concerning side effect associated with the use of ethambutol, optic neuropathy? What is the mechanism of action of the azoles? They inhibit ergosterol synthesis. Which drugs are used in the treatment of mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and F-ambutol. Which part of the 50S ribosomal subunit do the macrolides bind to and inhibit protein synthesis? 23S.
Which vitamin needs to be administered along with isoniazid? B6. Which vitamins should be supplemented when someone is taking amphotericin B? Potassium, and magnesium.
What is the worrisome side effect of flucidazine use? Bone marrow suppression. In which three populations is the use of fluoroquinolones contraindicated? Pregnant women, nursing mothers, and children under 18 years of age. What are the three concerning side effects associated with the use of linazolid?
Bone marrow suppression, peripheral neuropathy, and serotonin syndrome. What type of therapy with the rifamicins leads to rapid resistance? Monotherapy. What does dapsone precipitate in a glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficient patient?
Hemolysis. What can be given along with trimethoprim to avoid granulocytopenia? Leucovorin.
What type of pneumonia are the macrolides typically used against? Atypical, such as Legionella, Mycoplasma, or Chlamydia. What is the underlying cause of grey baby syndrome associated with chloramphenicol use? It's the fact that infants lack liver UDP glucuronal transferase.
Which two conditions is chloramphenicol generally used for? Meningitis and rickettsial diseases. Which type of nephritis can be caused by sulfonamides?
Tubulointerstitial nephritis, aciclovir, famciclovir, and valaciclovir. are which type of analog? Guanacin. Round number two. Which calcium channel blocker has hyperprolactinemia as a side effect?
Verapamil. What effect do beta blockers have on end diastolic volume? No effect or some increase.
Which type of commonly prescribed medication is contraindicated when using nitrates? Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors. What type of channel, specifically, do the calcium channel blockers work on? Voltage-gated L-type calcium channels in heart and smooth muscle.
What's the common side effect associated with procainamide use? SLE-like syndrome. What effect do the HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors have on LDL, HDL, and triglycerides?
Significantly lower LDL, increase HDL, Lower triglycerides. Which calcium channel blocker is best used in subarachnoid hemorrhage to prevent cerebral vasospasm? Nimodipine. How does nitroprusside exert its effects? It increases cyclic GMP via the direct release of nitrous oxide.
What effect do nitrates have on cardiac contractility? Increase. A reflexive response.
What effect do nitrates have on ejection time? Decrease it. What effects do nitrates have on heart rate? Increase.
A reflexive response. What effects do nitrates have on MVO2? Decrease it.
On which lipid does azetamide have the greatest lowering effect? LDL. What effect do beta blockers have on contractility?
Decreased contractility. What's the mechanism of action of hydralazine? Increases cyclic GMP and thus induces smooth muscle relaxation.
On which lipid do fibrates have the greatest lowering effect triglycerides which hormone is inhibited by the use of niacin hormone sensitive lipase what are three common side effects associated with the dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers peripheral edema flushing dizziness What effect do nitrates have on end diastolic volume? They lower it. What do the class 1b antiarrhythmics do to the action potential?
Decrease its duration. What is the most appropriate medication for hypertension in pregnant patients? Alpha-methyl dopa. Which calcium channel blockers are ideal for vascular smooth muscle?
amlodipine and nifedipine which calcium channel blocker is most effective for heart tissue verapamil which is more effective than diltiazem which is more effective than amlodipine how does adenosine exert its antiarrhythmic effects increases the removal of potassium from cells, leading to hyperpolarization. What effect do beta blockers have on MVO2? Decreased MVO2. What are common side effects of the non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers? Cardiac depression, AV block, constipation.
What is a concerning side effect of nitroprusside use? Cyanide toxicity. Which type of class 1 antiarrhythmic is contraindicated in patients with ischemic heart disease?
Class 1c. On which type of vessels does nitroglycerin have the greatest effect? Veins much more so than arteries.
PCSK9 inhibitors have the greatest lowering effect on which lipid? LDL. What effect do beta blockers have on heart rate? Decrease heart rate.
What's the mechanism of action of digoxin? Direct inhibition of the sodium potassium ATPase. What can lower the flushing side effect of niacin?
NSAIDs. How do the class II antiarrhythmics decrease SA and AV nodal activity? By decreasing cyclic AMP and decreasing calcium currents.
What is the unique side effect of ivabradine on the visual system? Causes luminous phenomenon. Which lipid-lowering agent has the greatest effect on increasing HDL? Niacin.
What effect do beta blockers have on blood pressure? Decreased blood pressure. What's the common side effect associated with quinidine use?
Synchonism. How can we treat the reflex tachycardia that can occur with the use of nitrates? Beta blockers.
What concurrently used medication? Increases the risk of myopathy in those using HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors. Fibrates or niacin.
Which mineral can be used to treat torsade de pointe and digoxin toxicity? Magnesium. What effect do beta blockers have on ejection time?
Increased ejection time. Digoxin can cause an increase in which ion? Potassium. Beta blockers suppress abnormal pacemakers by having what effect on the slope of phase 4?
They decrease the slope of phase 4. What's the well-known visual side effect of digoxin use? Blurry yellow vision. What do the class 3 antiarrhythmics do? to action potential duration, ERP, and the QT interval. Increase them all.
Ivabradine selectively inhibits which type of channel? Funny sodium channels. Which two class 3 antiarrhythmics have the highest risk of causing torsade de pointe? Sotilol and Ibutalide.
Which class 1 antiarrhythmic subcategory has the strongest sodium channel blockade? Class 1C. Which beta blocker is known to cause dyslipidemia? Metoprolol.
What effect do the class 4 antiarrhythmics have on conduction velocity? They decrease conduction velocity. What do we use to treat a beta blocker overdose? Saline, atropine, and glucagon. HMG, CoA reductase inhibitors, are known to cause toxicity to which organ?
The liver. Check LFTs. What do the class 1a antiarrhythmics do to the action potential?
Increase its duration. What effect do the class 4 antiarrhythmics have on ERP and the PR interval? They increase both. Which beta blocker can exacerbate vasospasm in vasospastic angina? Propranolol.
Which class 3 antiarrhythmic is known to cause pulmonary fibrosis? Amiodarone. Round number three.
What is the treatment for acetaminophen toxicity? N-acetylcysteine. What does the administration of N-acetylcysteine achieve in acetaminophen toxicity? It replenishes glutathione.
What is the treatment for benzodiazepine toxicity? Flumazenil. What are the two treatment options for arsenic poisoning? Dimer caprol and succimer. What are the treatment options for copper toxicity?
Penicillamine and triantine. What is the treatment for digitalis toxicity? Digoxin-specific antibody fragments. What is the agent used to reverse a heparin overdose? Protamine sulfate.
What are the three options to treat iron toxicity? Deferoxamine, deferacerox, and deferaprone. What is the treatment protocol for cyanide poisoning?
Hydroxocobalamin, nitrates, and sodium thiosulfate. What are the two treatments for mercury poisoning? Dimer caprol and succimer.
What is the treatment protocol for methemoglobin toxicity? methylene blue, and vitamin C. What is the treatment for opioid overdose?
Naloxone. What is the purpose of giving sodium bicarbonate in salicylate poisoning? To alkalinize the urine. What's the purpose of giving sodium bicarbonate in TCA poisoning? It stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane.
What is the treatment protocol for beta blocker toxicity? Atropine, glucagon, and saline. What is the treatment for immediate reversal of warfarin toxicity? FFP or PCC. What is the treatment for a delayed reversal of warfarin toxicity?
Vitamin K. What is the cardiovascular side effect associated with doxorubicin or donorubicin use? Dilated cardiomyopathy. What can be given to manage the development of red man syndrome associated with vancomycin use?
Diphenhydramine. Name the six pharmacologic causes of cutaneous flushing. vancomycin, adenosine, niacin, calcium channel blockers, echinocandins, and nitrates.
Which endocrinopathy can be precipitated by the use of lithium or dameclocycline? Diabetes insipidus. Name three classes or specific drugs that can cause SIADH.
carbamazepine, cyclophosphamide, and SSRIs. Halothane, amanita phylloides, valproic acid, and acetaminophen can all cause damage to which organ? The liver. Which two steps can minimize the risk of pill-induced esophagitis? upright posture, and adequate water ingestion with the drugs.
What is the major side effect seen with quinine or quinidine? Synchonism. Isoniazid and phenytoin are known to precipitate which problem?
Peripheral neuropathy. Which drug is associated with causing yellowing of the vision? Digoxin.
What is the visual problem associated with isoniazid? Optic neuritis. What is the major adverse effect of ifosfamide or cyclophosphamide use? Hemorrhagic cystitis. What can be given to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis in someone treated with cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide?
Mesna. What is the most common side effect associated with the use of ACE inhibitors? Dry cough. Which side effect is associated with busulfan, amiodarone, bleomycin, nitrofurantoin, methotrexate, and carmustine? Pulmonary fibrosis.
Which vitamin is linked to idiopathic intracranial hypertension? Vitamin A. Which movement disorder is associated with the use of metoclopramide and antipsychotics? Tardive dyskinesia. Which drug is linked to gray baby syndrome?
Chloramphenicol. What is the agent used to reverse a heparin overdose? Protamine sulfate.
What are the two treatments for mercury poisoning? dimer caprol, and succimer. What is the major adverse effect of ifosfamide or cyclophosphamide use? Hemorrhagic cystitis. What are the treatment options for copper toxicity?
Penicillamine and triantine. What is the treatment for digitalis toxicity? Digoxin-specific antibody fragments. Which vitamin is linked to idiopathic intracranial hypertension?
Vitamin A. What is the treatment for benzodiazepine toxicity? Flumazenil. What is the treatment for immediate reversal of warfarin toxicity? FFP. or PCC.
What are the two treatment options for arsenic poisoning? Dimer caprol and succimer. What is the purpose of giving sodium bicarbonate and salicylate poisoning?
To alkalinize the urine. What are the three options to treat iron toxicity? What is the treatment protocol for cyanide poisoning?
What is the treatment for a delayed reversal of warfarin toxicity? What is the treatment protocol for beta blocker toxicity? Atropine, glucagon, and saline.
What's the purpose of giving sodium bicarbonate in TCA poisoning? It stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane. Name the six pharmacologic causes of cutaneous flushing.
vancomycin, adenosine, niacin, calcium channel blockers, echinocandins, and nitrates. What is the cardiovascular side effect associated with doxorubicin or donorubicin use? Dilated cardiomyopathy. What does the administration of N-acetylcysteine achieve in acetaminophen toxicity?
It replenishes glutathione. What is the treatment for opioid overdose? Naloxone.
Which movement disorder is associated with the use of metoclopramide and antipsychotics? Tardive dyskinesia. Which endocrinopathy can be precipitated by the use of lithium or dameclocycline?
Diabetes insipidus, halothane, aminita phylloides, valproic acid, and acetaminophen can all cause damage to which organ? The liver. What can be given to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis in someone treated with cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide?
Mesna. Name three classes or specific drugs that can cause SIADH. Carbamazepine, cyclophosphamide, and SSRIs. Which two steps can minimize the risk of pill-induced esophagitis? Upright posture.
An adequate water ingestion with the drugs. What is the most common side effect associated with the use of ACE inhibitors? Dry cough.
Which drug is associated with causing yellowing of the vision? Digoxin. Which drug is linked to grey baby syndrome? Chloramphenicol. What can be given to manage the development of Redman syndrome associated with vancomycin use?
Diphenhydramine. What is the major side effect seen with quinine or quinidine? Synchonism.
Which side effect is associated with busulfan, amiodarone, bleomycin? nitrofurantoin, methotrexate, and carmustine, pulmonary fibrosis. What is the visual problem associated with isoniazid, optic neuritis?
Isoniazid and phenytoin are known to precipitate which problem? Peripheral neuropathy. What is the treatment for acetaminophen toxicity?
N-acetylcysteine. What is the treatment protocol for methemoglobin toxicity? Methylene blue and vitamin C. Name the six pharmacologic causes of cutaneous flushing. vancomycin, adenosine, niacin, calcium channel blockers, echinocandins, and nitrates.
What is the treatment protocol for methemoglobin toxicity? Methylene blue and vitamin C. What is the treatment protocol for cyanide poisoning?
hydroxocobalamin, nitrates, and sodium thiosulfate. What is the major adverse effect of iphosphamide or cyclophosphamide use? Hemorrhagic cystitis. What's the purpose of giving sodium bicarbonate in TCA poisoning? It stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane.
What is the agent used? to reverse a heparin overdose? Protamine sulfate.
Which two steps can minimize the risk of pill induced esophagitis? Upright posture and adequate water ingestion with the drugs. Which movement disorder is associated with the use of metoclopramide and antipsychotics?
Tardive dyskinesia. What is the major side effect seen with quinine or quinidine? Synchonism.
What are the two treatments for mercury poisoning? Dimer caprol and succimer. What can be given to manage the development of red man syndrome associated with vancomycin use? Diphenhydramine.
What is the treatment for acetaminophen toxicity? N-acetylcysteine, halothane, amanita phylloides, valproic acid, and acetaminophen can all cause damage to which organ? The liver. Which side effect is associated?
with busulfan, amiodarone, bleomycin, nitrofurantoin, methotrexate, and carmustine, pulmonary fibrosis. What is the treatment protocol for beta blocker toxicity? Atropine, glucagon, and saline.
What are the two treatment options for arsenic poisoning? dimercaprol, and succimer. Name three classes or specific drugs that can cause SIADH.
Carbamazepine, cyclophosphamide, and SSRIs. Which drug is associated with causing yellowing of the vision? Digoxin. What is the cardiovascular side effect associated with doxorubicin or donorubicin use? Dilated cardiomyopathy.
Which endocrinopathy can be precipitated by the use of lithium or dameclocycline? Diabetes insipidus. What is the treatment for digitalis toxicity? Digoxin-specific antibody fragments.
Which drug is linked to gray baby syndrome? Chloramphenicol. Which vitamin is linked to idiopathic intracranial hypertension?
Vitamin A. What does the administration of N-acetylcysteine achieve in acetaminophen toxicity? It replenishes glutathione. What is the treatment for a delayed reversal of warfarin toxicity? Vitamin K. What can be given to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis?
in someone treated with cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide. What are the three options to treat iron toxicity? Deferoxamine, deferaserox, and deferaprone.
What is the purpose of giving sodium bicarbonate in salicylate poisoning? to alkalinize the urine. What is the most common side effect associated with the use of ACE inhibitors?
Dry cough. What is the treatment for immediate reversal of warfarin toxicity? FFP or PCC.
What is the visual problem associated with isoniazid? Optic neuritis. Isoniazid and phenytoin are known to precipitate which problem?
Peripheral neuropathy. What are the treatment options for copper toxicity? Penicillamine and triantine. What is the treatment for opioid overdose?
Naloxone. What is the treatment for benzodiazepine toxicity? Flumazenil.
What is the treatment for acetaminophen toxicity? N-acetylcysteine. Which vitamin is linked to idiopathic intracranial hypertension?
Vitamin A. What is the most common side effect associated with the use of ACE inhibitors? Dry cough. What is the treatment protocol for cyanide poisoning? Hydroxycobalamin, nitrates, and sodium thiosulfate.
Halothane, amanita phylloides, valproic acid. and acetaminophen can all cause damage to which organ? The liver.
What can be given to manage the development of Redman syndrome associated with vancomycin use? Diphenhydramine. What is the treatment for opioid overdose?
Naloxone. Which drug is associated with causing yellowing of the vision? Digoxin.
What can be given to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis in someone treated with cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide? Mesna. What is the treatment for digitalis toxicity?
Digoxin-specific antibody fragments. What is the treatment for immediate reversal of warfarin toxicity? FFP or PCC. What is the agent used to reverse a heparin overdose? Protamine sulfate.
Which drug is associated with causing yellowing of the vision? Digoxin. What is the major adverse effect of ifosfamide or cyclophosphamide use?
Hemorrhagic cystitis, halothane, amanita phylloides, valproic acid, and acetaminophen can all cause damage to which organ? The liver. What are the treatment options for copper toxicity?
Penicillamine and triantine. Name the six pharmacologic causes of cutaneous flushing. Vancomycin, adenosine, niacin, calcium channel blockers, echinocandins, and nitrates. Which drug is linked to gray baby syndrome?
Chloramphenicol. What can be given to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis in someone treated with cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide? Mesna.
What are the three options to treat iron toxicity? What is the treatment protocol for methemoglobin toxicity? Methylene blue and vitamin C.
What is the treatment for opioid overdose? Naloxone. What is the treatment for benzodiazepine toxicity? Flumazenil. Which vitamin is linked to idiopathic intracranial hypertension?
Vitamin A. Name the six pharmacologic causes of cutaneous flushing. Vancomycin, adenosine, niacin, calcium channel blockers, echinocandins, and nitrates. What is the treatment for acetaminophen toxicity?
N-acetylcysteine. Name three classes or specific drugs that can cause SIADH. Carbamazepine, cyclophosphamide, and SSRIs. What is the treatment for a delayed reversal of warfarin toxicity? Vitamin K. What is the purpose of giving sodium bicarbonate and salicylate poisoning?
To alkalinize the urine. What is the treatment for digitalis toxicity? Digoxin-specific antibody fragments.
What can be given to manage the development of Redman syndrome associated with vancomycin use? Diphenhydramine. What does the administration of N-acetylcysteine achieve in acetaminophen toxicity? It replenishes glutathione. What is the visual problem associated with isoniazid, optic neuritis?
What is the treatment protocol for beta blocker toxicity, atropine, glucagon, and saline? Which endocrinopathy? can be precipitated by the use of lithium or dimeclocycline.
Diabetes insipidus. What is the major side effect seen with quinine or quinidine? Synchonism.
What are the two treatments for mercury poisoning? Dimer caprol and succimer. What are the two treatment options for arsenic poisoning? Dimer caprol and succimer. What is the treatment for immediate reversal of warfarin toxicity?
FFP or PCC. What are the treatment options for copper toxicity? Penicillamine.
and triantine. What does the administration of N-acetylcysteine achieve in acetaminophen toxicity? It replenishes glutathione.
Name three classes or specific drugs that can cause SIADH. carbamazepine, cyclophosphamide, and SSRIs. What is the most common side effect associated with the use of ACE inhibitors? Dry cough.
Isoniazid and phenytoin are known to precipitate which problem? Peripheral neuropathy. What's the purpose of giving sodium bicarbonate in TCA poisoning?
It stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane. Which two steps can minimize the risk of pill-induced esophagitis? Upright posture and adequate water ingestion with the drugs. What is the treatment protocol for methemoglobin toxicity?
Methylene blue. and vitamin C. What's the purpose of giving sodium bicarbonate in TCA poisoning?
It stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane. Which two steps can minimize the risk of pill-induced esophagitis? Upright posture and adequate water ingestion with the drugs.
What is the treatment for benzodiazepine toxicity? Flumazenil. Which endocrinopathy can be precipitated by the use of lithium or dameclocycline?
Diabetes insipidus. Which movement disorder is associated with the use of metoclopramide and antipsychotics? Tardive dyskinesia.
What are the three options to treat iron toxicity? Deferoxamine, deferacerox, and deferaprone.