CNA Basic Nursing Skills Practice Test 2024

This test includes 70 questions with explained answers that are useful for test preparation. Below are key topics and important details from the practice test.

Question Summaries

Question 1: Assessing a Casted Foot

Important to assess: Color and temperature of the toes
Reason: Indicates if the cast is too tight. Toes should be warm and pink.

Question 2: Stress Incontinence Management

Necessary action: Frequent toileting breaks
Reason: Prevents bladder from getting too full. Avoids UTIs, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances.

Question 3: Patient Falls

First step: Assess the patient for injuries
Reason: Prevents further harm by ensuring no injuries before moving patient.

Question 4: Medical Abbreviations

Before meals and at bedtime: a.c. HS
Use case: Diabetic patients needing glucose checks

Question 5: Dysphagia Precautions

Item to question: Regular orange juice
Reason: Requires thickened liquids to prevent aspiration.

Question 6: Dark Amber Urine

Sign of: Dehydration
Action: Encourage fluid intake.

Question 7: Unresponsive Patient

First step: Check for a pulse
Reason: Critical to assess circulation before proceeding with other actions.

Question 8: Fracture Type Bed Pan

Used for: Patients with back injuries
Reason: Easier to slide under the patient without lifting hips.

Question 9: Signs of Infection

Possible signs: Fever, tachycardia (HR 101), tachypnea (RR 22), sweating
Condition: Most likely an infection.

Question 10: Wrist Restraints

Proper fit: 2 fingers should fit under the restraint
Reason: Ensures restraints are not too tight or loose.

Question 11: Diabetic Foot Care

Important action: Keep feet dry and warm with clean socks
Reason: Prevents infections; podiatrist should clip toenails.

Question 12: Contact Precautions

Condition requiring contact precautions: MRSA
Contrast: TB (airborne), COVID-19 (contact, airborne, droplet), Pneumonia (droplet).

Question 13: CPR with Second Rescuer

Breath rate: One breath every 6 seconds
Reason: Provides adequate oxygen to the patient in cardiac arrest.

Question 14: CPR Compression Depth

Proper depth: 2 inches
Reason: Ensures adequate perfusion without causing harm.

Question 15: Documenting Fluid Intake

8 oz of water: 240 mL
Conversion: 1 oz = 30 mL.

Question 16: Chin Tuck for Dysphagia

Reason: Prevents choking by directing food into the esophagus.

Question 17: Counting Respirations

Proper method: Watch chest rise for 60 seconds
Reason: Ensures accurate measurement of respiratory rate.

Question 18: Foley Catheter Position

Proper placement: At or below the bladder
Reason: Prevents backflow and potential bladder infections.

Question 19: Blood Pressure Post-Mastectomy

Procedure: Use the unaffected arm (right arm if left-sided mastectomy)
Reason: Prevents complications like cellulitis and lymphedema.

Question 20: Pulse Oximeter

Measures: Amount of O2 in the blood
Use: Non-invasive peripheral oxygen monitoring.

Question 21: Foley Catheter Output

Concerning amount: 350 mL over 12 hours
Reason: Indicates possible acute kidney failure (<30 mL/hr).

Question 22: Normal Aging Signs

Normal: Slower response time
Not Normal: Incontinence, loss of balance, memory loss.

Question 23: Medical Abbreviation Inappropriate Use

Inappropriate: QD (daily)
Reason: Easily confused with other terms; should write out 'daily'.

Question 24: Preventing Orthostatic Hypotension

Action: Have patient sit on the side of the bed before standing
Reason: Prevents BP from dropping too quickly.

Question 25: Timing of Meals After Insulin

Action: Eat ASAP after short-acting insulin
Reason: Prevents hypoglycemia as insulin starts working within 30-60 min.

Question 26: Fire in Unit

First step: Rescue patients
Acronym: RACE (Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate).

Question 27: Apical Pulse

Location: Left of the sternum at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
Reason: Most accurate site to measure heart rate.

Question 28: Strict I&O Status

Measurement: All liquids consumed and urine output
Reason: Full monitoring of fluid balance.

Question 29: Accurate Blood Pressure Reading

Proper position: Upright with legs uncrossed
Reason: Ensures accurate blood pressure measurement.

Question 30: Repositioning Frequency

Frequency: Every 2 hours
Reason: Prevents pressure ulcers and skin breakdown.

Question 31: Risks for Bedbound Patients

Risk: Muscle atrophy
Action: Perform active and passive range of motion exercises.

Question 32: Preventing Pressure Ulcers

Action: Turn patient every 2 hours and offload pressure
Reason: Prevents skin breakdown.

Question 33: Diabetic Emergency

Signs: Sweating, disorientation, inability to speak
Action: Check glucose level for hypoglycemia.

Question 34: Supine Position

Bed position: Flat
Purpose: Used for turning and providing personal care.

Question 35: Securing Foley Catheter

Method: Secure catheter to the inner thigh
Reason: Prevents accidental removal and keeps catheter in place.

Question 36: UTI in Elderly

Common symptoms: Cognitive delays, hitting, kicking
Condition: Likely a urinary tract infection (UTI).

Question 37: Carotid Pulse Palpation

Method: Place two fingers lightly on the side of the neck, beneath the mandible and over the trachea
Reason: Accurate location of carotid artery.

Question 38: Assessing Pain

Principle: Pain is subjective and whatever the patient says it is.
Action: Report pain as described by the patient.

Question 39: Timing of Weight Measurement

Best practice: Same time every day
Reason: Ensures consistent and accurate readings.

Question 40: Ensuring Patient Safety

Best method: Verify patient ID by asking name & DOB and checking armband.
Reason: Prevents errors and ensures correct patient identification.

Question 41: Dark Stools

Indicator: GI bleed
Action: Report immediately to the nurse.

Question 42: Bed Linens

Importance: Prevent wrinkles to avoid decubitus ulcers
Reason: Wrinkles can cause skin breakdown.

Question 43: Stroke Signs

Common sign: Drooping of one side of the face
Other signs: Asymmetrical facial expressions, one-sided eye drooping.

Question 44: Patient Falling During Transfer

Action: Grab transfer belt and gently lower to the floor
Reason: Protects both patient and caregiver from injury.

Question 45: Handling Dirty Linens

Proper disposal: Place in laundry bag
Reason: Prevents cross-contamination.

Question 46: Transfer Device

Best device for generalized weakness: Gait belt
Use: Assists in transferring from bed to chair etc.

Question 47: New Diabetic Patient

Priority action: Ensure patient understands call light system
Reason: Prioritizes patient safety.

Question 48: Shaving and Oxygen

Safest method: Use a standard razor
Reason: Electric shavers pose a fire risk with oxygen.

Question 49: Wheelchair Transfer Position

Best position: In front of the wheelchair
Reason: Allows caregiver to pivot patient safely.

Question 50: Restraint Protocol

Proper attachment: Tie to bed frame
Reason: Prevents harm from bed movement.

Question 51: Colostomy Stoma Color

Concerning sign: Dark purple stoma
Action: Report immediately to the charge nurse.

Question 52: Subjective Information

Example: Patient's pain level is 7/10
Definition: Information reported by the patient, not directly measurable.

Question 53: Edema Management

Position: Semi-Fowler’s with legs elevated above the heart
Purpose: Reduces lower extremity edema.

Question 54: Signs of a Blood Clot

Symptoms: Pain, redness, warmth in calf
Action: Report immediately as it indicates a serious condition.

Question 55: Contact Precautions

Required PPE: Gloves and gown
Use case: Contact with infectious material.

Question 56: Risk of Incontinence

Increased risk: Pressure wounds
Reason: Acidic nature of urine and feces and prolonged wetness.

Question 57: Measuring Bodily Fluids

Standard unit: Milliliters (mL)
Conversion: 1 oz = 30 mL.

Question 58: Preventing Germ Spread

Best method: Handwashing before and after patient care
Reason: Most effective way to prevent transmission.

Question 59: Side Rail Protocol

Standard practice: One side rail on each side raised
Reason: Prevents patient falls without acting as a restraint.

Question 60: C. Diff Precautions

Precaution type: Enteric precautions
Required actions: Hand hygiene, gown, gloves, limit visitor contact.

Question 61: ADLs (Activities of Daily Living)

Examples: Brushing teeth, eating breakfast, getting dressed
Non-example: Shopping for groceries.

Question 62: Ambulating with Foley Catheter

Proper handling: Carry the Foley bag below the bladder level
Reason: Prevents backflow and infection.

Question 63: Infant Temperature Measurement

Best method: Rectally
Reason: Most accurate for infants.

Question 64: Pneumonia Patient Teaching

Instruction: Cough and deep breathe frequently
Reason: Prevents worsening of pneumonia.

Question 65: Addressing Symptoms of Hypoglycemia

Next step: Obtain a point-of-care (POC) glucose reading
Signs: Sweating, low heart rate, fruity breath.

Question 66: Proper Perineal Care

Technique: Wash from the meatus out
Reason: Prevents contamination and reduces risk of UTI.

Question 67: CPR Compression Rate

Proper rate: 100-120 compressions per minute
Guidance: American Heart Association.

Question 68: Seizure Management

Proper action: Lay the patient on their left side
Reason: Prevents aspiration and keeps airway clear.

Question 69: Disposal of MRSA Precautions

Proper disposal: In the patient room
Reason: Prevents cross-contamination.

Question 70: Documenting Fluid Intake

Example: 6 oz coffee, 8 oz protein shake, 9 oz orange juice
Documentation: 690 mL
Conversion: 23 oz x 30 mL/oz = 690 mL.

Conclusion

This practice test covers essential CNA skills with explanations to help prepare for the CNA exam. Practice thoroughly to enhance understanding and ensure success.