foreign P General written test study guide question one the term that describes the combined resistive forces in an AC circuit is impotence the basis for the basis for Transformer operation and the use of alternating current is mutual inductance the opposition offered by a coil to the flow of alternating current is called disregard resistance inductive reactants an increase in which of the following factors will cause an increase in the inductive reactance of the circuit applicants and frequency capacitors are sometimes used in DC circuits to smooth out slight pulsations and voltage slash current in an AC circuit the effective voltage is less than the maximum instant less less than the maximum instantaneous voltage the amount of electricity a capacitor can store is directly proportional to the play area and inversely proportional to the distance between the plates unless otherwise specified any values given for current or voltage in an AC circuit are assumed to be effective values when different rated capacitors are connected in parallel and a circuit the total capacitance is equal to the sum of all the capacitances when inductors are connected in series in a circuit the total inductance is equal to the sum of the individual inductances what is the total capacitance of a certain circuit containing three capacitors which capacitance of 0.25 microfarad 0.03 microfarad and 0.12 microfarad 0.4 microfarad which requires the most electrical power steering operation two lights requiring 3 amps each in a 24 volt parallel system [Music] the potential difference between two conductors which are insulated from each other is measured in folds a 24 volt source is required to furnish 48 watts to a parallel circuit consisting of four resistors of equal value what is the voltage drop across each resistor 24 volts when calculating power in a reactive or inductive AC circuit the true power is less than the apparent power the correct way to connect a test fault meter in a circuit is in parallel with the unit which term means .001 ampere milliampere foreign is used to express electrical power why which statement is correct when made in reference to a parallel circuit the total current is equal to the sum of the currents through the individual branches of the circuit which of the following are commonly used as rectifiers in electrical circuits diodes diodes are used in electrical power supply circuits primarily as rectifiers transfer of electricity from one circuit to another without the aid of electrical connectors is called induction which is correct in reference to electrical resistance if one of three bulbs in a parallel lighting circuit is removed the total resistance of the circuit will become greater what happens to the current in a voltage Step up Transformer with a ratio of one to four current is stepped down by a one to four ratio which of these will cause the resistance of a conductor to decrease the length or increase the cross-sectional area through which material will magnetic lines of force pass the most readily iron a 48 volt source is required to furnish 192 Watts so a parallel circuit consisting of three resistors of equal value what is the value of each resistor 36 ohms which is correct concerning a parallel circuit total resistance will be smaller than the smallest resistor the voltage drop in a circuit of known resistance is dependent on the amperage of the circuit thermal switch or thermal protector as used in an electrical motor is designed to open the circuit in order to allow cooling of the motor when referring to an electrical circuit diagram what point is considered to be at zero voltage the ground reference what is the purpose of the ground symbol used in electrical circuit diagrams [Music] to show that there is a return path for the current between the source of electrical energy and the load in a PNP transistor application the solid state device is turned on 1V [Music] bases negative with respect to the emitter in a npn transistor application the solid-state device is turned on when the bases positive with respect to the trans the base is positive with respect to the emitter typical application for zener diodes is as voltage regulators forward biasing of solid state device will cause a device to conduct if electrolyte from a lead acid battery is spilled in the battery compartment which procedures should be followed apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected area followed by a Water Rinse which statement regarding the hydrometer reading of a lead acid storage battery electrolyte is true the hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the electrolyte temperature is 80 degrees Fahrenheit a fully charged lead acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached because there is mostly acid in this in the solution what determines the amount of current which will follow through a battery while it is it is being charged by a constant voltage source the state of charge of the battery which of the following statements is are generally true regarding the charging of several aircraft batteries together batteries of different voltages but similar capacities can be charged can be connected in series with each other across the charger and charged using the constant current method batteries of different amp hour capacities and the same voltage can be charged in parallel with each other across the charger the method used to rapidly charge a nickel CAD battery utilizes constant voltage and varying current the purpose of providing a space underneath plates and a lead acid battery cells container is to prevent sediment buildup from contaminating the plates and causing a short circuit which of the following which condition is an indication of improperly torqued cell link connections of nickel cadmium batteries heat or burn marks on the hardware the presence of any small amount of potassium carbonate deposits on the top of nicad battery cells in service is an indication of normal operation what is the likely result of servicing and charging nicad and lead acid batteries together in the same service area contamination of both types of batteries the electrolyte of nicad battery is the lowest one the battery is in a discharged condition the electrolyte of nicad battery is highest when the battery is in a fully charged condition the end of charge voltage of a 19 cell nikad battery measured while still on charge depends upon its temperature and the method used for charging nicad batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low liquid level because electrolyte becomes absorbed into the plates how can the state of charge of a nickel cadmium battery be determined by a measured discharge what may result if water is added to a nicad battery when it is not fully charged excessive spewing is likely to occur during the charging cycle in nicad batteries a rise in cell temperature causes a decrease in internal resistance which of the following best describes the contribution contributing factors to Thermal runaway in a nikad battery installed on an aircraft low internal resistance intensified by high cell temperatures and a high current discharge slash charge rate and a constant potential charging system when a chart when a charging current is applied to a nicad battery the cells emit gas towards the end of the charging cycle what will a voltmeter read if properly connected across a cross a closed switch in a circuit with electrical power on zero voltage what type of selections what type of sections illustrate particular parts of an object removed sections the working voltage of a capacitor in the AC circuit should be foreign greater than the highest applied voltage one type of line is normally used in a mechanical drawing or blueprint to represent an edge or object not visible to a viewer medium weight dashed line a special a specified measured distance from the datum or some other point identified by the manufacturer to the point on an aircraft is called a station number which statement is true regarding orthographic projections one view two View and three view drawings are the most common a line used to show an edge which is not visible is a hidden line which of these is true schematic diagrams indicate delete the location of components with respect to each other within the system which statement is applicable when using a sketch for making a part sketch must show all information to manufacture the part for sketching purposes almost all objects are composed of one or more [Music] for sketching purposes all objects are composed of one or some combination of six basic shapes these include the triangle Circle Cube cylinder cone and sphere [Music] what should be the first step of a procedure in sketching an aircraft Wing skin repair Block in the views a simple way to find out the center of a circle on a sketch or drawing or a circular piece of material is to draw two non-parallel chord lines across a circle and then a corresponding perpendicular bisector line across each chord line which of the following is true on occasion a mechanic may need to make a simple sketch of a proposed repair to an aircraft a new design or a modification working drawings may be divided into three classes they are detailed drawings assembly drawings and installation drawings what is the part what is the class of working drawing that is the description slash depiction of a single part detail drawing sketches are usually made easier by the use of graph paper what material symbol is frequently used in drawings to represent all materials cast iron the measurements showing the ideal or perfect sizes of a part on a drawing are called dimensions Zone numbers on aircraft blueprints are used to locate Parts sections and views on large drawings one purpose for schematic diagrams is to show the functional location of components within a system I had a hydraulic system schematic drawing typically indicates the direction of fluid flow throughout the system foreign which of the following is true a measurement should not be scaled from an aircraft print because the paper shrinks or stretches when the print is made when a detailed drawing is made it is carefully and accurately drawn to scale and is dimensioned the drawings often used on Illustrated Parts manuals are exploded view drawings a drawing in which the sub-assemblies or parts are shown as bought together on the aircraft is called an installation drawing what type of diagram shows the wire size required for a particular installation a wiring diagram and what type of electrical system diagram are images of components used instead of conventional electrical systems a pictorial diagram schematic diagrams are best suited for which of the following troubleshooting system malfaction malfunctions in the reading of aircraft blueprints the term tolerance used in association with aircraft parts or components is the difference between extreme permissible Dimensions that a part may have and still be acceptable which of the following terms is used to indicate specific measured distances from the datum to other points in the aircraft station numbers when Computing Weight and Balance an airplane is considered to be in Balance one the average moment arm of the loaded airplane falls within its CG range what tasks are completed prior to weighing an aircraft to determine its empty weight remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list to drain fuel and fill hydraulic Reservoir the useful load of an aircraft consists of crew usable fuel passengers and cargo which of the following can be provided which of the following can provide the empty weight of an aircraft if the aircraft's weight and balance records become lost destroyed or otherwise inaccurate relaying the aircraft in the theory of Weight and Balance what is the name of the distance from the fulcrum to an object love her arm in the process of weighing an airplane towards obtaining the CG the arms from the weights points always extend parallel to the center line of the airplane which would have an effect on aircraft CG results when conducting a weight and balance check leaving the down locks installed when an aircraft is positioned for weight on scales located under each landing gear wheel which of the following may cause erroneous scale readings parking brakes set private aircraft are required by regulation to be weighed periodically false private aircraft are required to be weighed after making any alteration false while FAA approved document gives the leveling means to be used when weighing an aircraft tcds which of the following generally yields the highest degree of aircraft leveling accuracy Spirit levels to obtain useful weight data for purposes of determining the CG it is necessary that an aircraft be weighed in a level flight attitude what type of measurement is used to designate the arm and weight and balance computations distance what determines whether the value of a moment is preceded by a plus or minus sign in an aircraft weight and balance the result of weight being added or removed and its location relative to the datum the maximum weight of an aircraft is the empty weight plus useful load which of the following statement is true regarding helicopter weight and balance Weight and Balance procedures for airplanes generally also applies to helicopters what should be clearly indicated on the aircraft weighing form weighing points if the reference datum line is placed at the nose of the airplane rather than at the firewall or some other location after the nose all measurement arms will be in positive numbers zero fuel weight is the maximum permissible weight of the loaded aircraft passengers crew and cargo without fuel if it is necessary to weigh an aircraft with full fuel tanks all fuel mate weight must be subtracted from these scale readings except unusable fuel empty weight of the airplane is determined by retracting the tear weight from the scale reading and adding the weight of each weighing point [Music] when dealing with weight and balance of the aircraft the term maximum weight is interpreted to mean the maximum authorized weight of the aircraft and its contents most modern aircraft are designed so that if all the seats are occupied full baggage weight is carried and all fuel tanks are full what will be the weight condition of the aircraft it will be in excess of maximum takeoff weight the major the major source of weight change for most aircraft as the age is caused by repairs and alterations the useful load of an aircraft is the difference between the maximum takeoff weight and basic empty weight when determining the empty weight of New York of an aircraft certified under current airworthiness standards the oil contained and the supply tank is considered a part of the empty weight and proper loading of the of a helicopter which results in exceeding either the four or aft CG limits is hazardous due to the reduction or loss of effective cyclic pitch control the maximum weight as used in Weight and Balance control of a given aircraft can normally be found [Music] in the aircraft tcds sheet the amount of fuel used for computing empty weight and corresponding CG is unusable fuel any balanced computation of an aircraft from which an item located after the date and was removed use a negative weight times a positive arm equals a negative moment all other things being equal If an item of useful load located aft of the aircraft CG is removed the aircraft CG change will be forward in proportion to the weight of the item and its location in the aircraft when making your rearward wait and balance check to determine that the CG will not exceed the rearward limit during extreme conditions the items of useful load which should be computed at their minimum weights are are those located forward of the rearward CG limit one or under what conditions or adverse loading checks conducted anytime a repair or alteration causes empty weight Center for Gravity to fall within the empty weight center of gravity range when accomplishing loaded computations for a small aircraft necessary information obtained from the weight and balance records would also include current empty weight and empty weight CG if the empty weight CG of an airplane lies within the empty weight CG limits it is not necessarily it is not necessary to calculate cge extremes when Computing the maximum forward loaded CG of an aircraft minimum weights arms and moments should be used for items of useful load that are located aft of the forward CG limit [Music] an aircraft's Lee mag and tmac are defined in terms of distance from the datum if an aircraft CG is found to be at 24 of Mac that's 24 in the expression of the distance from the Lee mag [Music] which coupling nut should be selected for use with 12 inch aluminum with 12 inch aluminum oil lines which are assembled using flared tube ends and standard and nuts sleeves and fittings an818-8 metal tubing fluid lines are sized by wall thickness and [Music] outside diameter in 16th inch increments hydraulic tubing which is damaged in a localized area to such an extent that a repair is necessary may be repaired by cutting out the damage area and utilizing a Swatch tube fitting to join the two bends what is an advantage of a double flare on an aluminum tubing foreign is tightened a certain amount of slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation because Under Pressure it contracts in length and expands in diameter the term cold flow is generally associated with Impressions left in natural or synthetic rubber hose material what is the color of an steel flare tube fittings black which of the following is true and fittings have an identifying shoulder between the end of the threads and the flare cone flexible lines must be installed with a slack of five to eight percent of the length the maximum distance between end fittings to which a straight hose assembly is to be connected is 50 inches the minimum hose length to make such a connection should be 52.5 inches excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal tubing caused by expansion and contraction due to temperature changes can best be avoided by providing bends in the tubing the material specifications for a certain aircraft required that a replacement oil line be fabricated from three quarter inch aluminum alloy tubing what is the inside diameter of the tubing 0.606 inches in most aircraft hydraulic systems a two-piece tube connector consisting of a sleeve and a nut are used when a tubing flare is required the use of this type of connector illuminates the possibility the possibility of reducing the flare thickness by wiping or ironing during the tightening process [Music] which of the following is true about Ms military standard flareless fittings during insulation Ms flareless fittings are normally tightened by turning but not a specified amount rather than being torqued when flaring aluminum tubing for use with an fittings the flare angle must be 37 degrees scratches or Nicks only straight portion of aluminum alloy tubing may be repaired if they are no deeper than 10 of the wall thickness flexible hose used in the aircraft systems is classified in size according to the inside diameter a scratch or Nick and aluminum tubing can be repaired provided it does not appear in the heel of a Bend which of the following materials are is compatible with phosphate ester based hydraulic fluids butyl and Teflon which tubing has the characteristics high strength abrasion resistance necessary for the high pressure 2000 PSI hydraulic system for operation of landing gear and flaps corrosion resistant steel annealed or quarter inch h orn installing bonded clamps to support metal tubing remove paint or anodizing from the tube at clamp location in a metal tubing installation tension is under undesirable because press pressurization will cause it to expand and shift the best tool to use when cutting aluminum alloy tubing or any tubing of a moderately soft metal is a hand operated wheel type tubing cutter the primary purpose of providing suitable bends in fluid animatic metal tubing runs is to [Music] prevent excessive stress on the tubing which of the following statements is true regarding minimum allowable Bend radii for 1.5 inches OD or less aluminum aluminum alloy tubing and steel tubing of the same size the minimum radius for steel is greater than for aluminum a gas or fluid line marked with the letters phdan is used to carry a hazardous substance which statement is true regarding the variety of symbols utilized only identifying color code bands that are currently used in aircraft Plumbing lines symbols are always black against a white background regardless of the line content if a flare tube coupling nut is over tightened where where is the tube most likely to be weakened or damaged at the sleeve and flared Junction which statement concerning Bernoulli's principle is true the pressure of a fluid decreases at points where the velocity of the fluid increases which are true one bonding clamps are used for support when installing metal tubing true unbody unbonded clamps are used for support when installing wiring true which statement is true regarding flattening of tubing and bends [Music] flattening by not more than 25 percent of the original diameter is permissible a 3 8 inch aircraft high pressure flexible hose as compared to a 3 8 inch metal tubing used in the same system will have equivalent flow characteristics magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to detect flaws on or near surface liquid penetrate inspection methods may be used on which of the following ferrous metals non-ferrous Metals non-porous Plastics which of these non-destructive testing methods is suitable for the inspection of most metals Plastics and Ceramics for surface and subsurface detection ultrasonic inspection which of the following defects are not acceptable for metal lines cracked flares seams dents in the heel or bends less than 20 percent of the diameter dents and Trace sections that are 20 of tube diameter what non-destructive testing method requires little or no part preparation is used to detect surface or near surface defects in most metals and may be used to separate metals or Alloys and their heat treated conditions any current inspection one method of mag particle inspection is used most often to inspect aircraft ports for Visible cracks and other defects continuous how many of these factors are considered Essential Knowledge for x-ray exposure exposure distance and angle the testing medium that is generally used in magnetic particle inspection utilizes a ferromagnetic material that has a high permeability and low retentivity which statement relating to the residual magnetic inspection method is true it may be used with Steels which has heat treated it may be used with Steels which have been heat treated for stressed applications a mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair using the Potted compound repair technique what NDT method is used to determine the soundness of the repair after the repair after the repair has cured the metallic ring test what two types of indicating mediums are available for mag particle inspection wet and dry process materials which of the following materials may be inspected using the mag particle inspection method iron alloys one way a part may be demagnetized after mag particle inspection is by slowly moving apart out of an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength which type of crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspections using either circular or longitudinal magnetization 45 degree which of the following methods may be suitable for you may be suitable to use to detect cracks open to the surface of aluminum forgings and castings thigh penetration inspections eddy current inspections ultrasonic inspections visual inspections to detect to detect a minute crack using dye penetrant inspection usually requires a longer than normal penetrating time which of the following is a main determinant of the dwell time to use when conducting a Dye penetrant or fluorescent penetrate inspection size and shape of the discontinuities being looked for when checking an item with the magnetic particle inspection method circular and longitudinal magnetization should be used to reveal all possible defects in mag particle inspection a flaw that is perpendicular to the magnetic magnetic field flux lines generally causes a large disruption in the magnetic field if dye penetration inspection indications are not sharp and clear the most probable cause is that the part was not thoroughly washed before the developer was applied which of the following is true an aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetization force from alternating current that is gradually reduced in strength true an aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetizing force from direct current that is alternately reversed in Direction and gradually reduced in strength true the pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic particle buildup forming parallel lines a port which is being prepared for dye punishment inspection should be cleaned with a volatile petroleum-based solvent under mag particle inspection a part will be identified as having a fatigue crack under which conditions this continuity is found in a highly stressed area of the part in performing dye penetrate inspection the developer acts as a blotter to produce a visible indication what defects will be detected by magnetizing a part using continuous longitudinal magnetization with a cable defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part circular circular magnetization of a part can be used to detect which defects defects parallel to the long axis of the part foreign which of the following is true and non-destructive testing a discontinuity may be defined as an interruption in the normal physical structure or configuration of a part true a discontinuity may be may or may not affect the usefulness of the part true which of the following corrosion attacks the grain boundaries of aluminum Alloys when the heat treatment process has been improperly accomplished intergranular corrosion which of the following describes the effects of annealing Steel and Alloys aluminum alloys decreased internal stress softens the metal which heat treatment process of metal produces a hard wear resistant surface over a long tough core case hardening which heat treatment operation will be performed when the surface of the metal is changed chemically by introducing a high carbide or nitride content case hardening normalizing is a process of heat treating iron-based Metals only which of the following occurs when a mechanical force is repeatedly applied to most metals at room temperature such as rolling hammering or bending the metals will become cold work strained or hardened the reheating of heat-treated metals such as with a welding torch can significantly alter a Metal's properties in the reheated area why is steel tempered after being hardened to relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittleness what aluminum alloy designations indicate that the metal has received no hardening or tempering treatment 3003 Dash f which material could not be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects clad aluminum alloy what what is descriptive what is descriptive of the annealing process of Steel during and after it has been annealed slow cooling low strength unless otherwise specified torque values for tightening aircraft nuts and bolts relate to clean dry threads what is generally used in the construction of aircraft engine firewalls stainless steel unless otherwise specified or required aircraft bolts should be installed so that the bolt head is upward and in a forward Direction all clad is a metal consisting of pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum alloy core a fiber type soft lock-in nut must never be used on an aircraft if the bolt is subject to rotation aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk mark on the bolt head are standard steel bolts which statement regarding aircraft bolts is correct in general bolt grip length should equal the material thickness generally speaking bolt grip lengths should be equal to the thickness of the material which is fastened together when the specified torque value for nuts is not given where can the recommended torque value be found AC 4313-1b the cotter pin hole does not align with the recommended torque range the acceptable practice is to change the washers and try again a bolt with a single raised Dash only head is classified as on an corrosion resistant steel Bolt how is a clevis bolt used with a fork and cable terminal secured with a sheer nut tie into a snug fit but with no string imposed on the fork and safety with a cotter pin foreign bolt used on an airplane only for sheer load applications a bolt with an X inside a triangle in the head is classified as a NES close tolerance Bolt core material the core material of All-Clad 2024 T4 is heat treated aluminum alloy and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum the aluminum code 1100 identifies what type of aluminum 99 commercially pure aluminum aircraft boats are usually manufactured with a class 3 fit for Threads in the fourth digit aluminum index system number 2024 the first digit indicates major alloying element how is the lock-in feature of the fiber type lockna obtained by the use of a unthreaded fiber locking insert what why shouldn't why should an aircraft maintenance technician be familiar with weld nomenclature in order to gain familiarity with the welding technique filler material and temperature range used why is it considered good practice to normalize a part after welding to relieve internal stresses developed within the base metal holes and a few projecting globules are found in a weld what action should be taken remove all the old walled and re-weld the joint which condition indicates a part has cooled too quickly after being welded cracking adjacent to the world select a characteristic of a good gas weld the wall should taper off smoothly into the base metal one characteristic of a good world is that no oxide should be formed on the base metal at a distance from the world of more than one half inch and examining and evaluating a welded joint a mechanic should be familiar with likely ambient exposure conditions and intended use of the part along with type of weld and Original Part material composition on a fill it well the penetration requirement includes what percentage of the base metal thickness 25 to 50 percent which tool could be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft or the plane of rotation of a disc dial indicator identify the correct statement dividers do not provide a reading one used as a measuring device which tool is used to measure the clearance between a surface plate and a relatively narrow surface being checked for flatness thickness gauge which number represents the Vernier scale graduation of a micrometer 0.0001 which tool is used to find the center of a shaft or other cylindrical work combination set if it is necessary to accurately measure the diameter of a hole approximately a quarter inch in diameter the mechanic should use a small hole gauge and determine the size of the hole by taking a micrometer reading of the ball end of the gauge what tool is generally used to set a divider to an exact dimension machinist scale what tool is generally use to calibrate a micrometer or check its accuracy gauge block what Precision measuring tool is used for measuring crank pin and main bearing journals for out of round wear micrometer caliper the side clearance of a piston ring are measured with a thickness gauge how can a dimensional inspection of bearing in a rocker arm be accomplished telescopic gauge and micrometer The Twist of a connecting rod rod is checked by installing push fit Arbors in both ends supported by parallel steel bars on Surface plate measurements are taken between the arbor and the parallel bar with a thickness gauge the clearance between the piston rings and the ring Lanes is measured with a thickness gauge what may be used to check the stem on a poppet type valve for stretch micrometer which tool can be used to determine piston pin out of round wear micrometer caliber during starting over turbine power plant using a compressed air starter a hung start occurs select the proper procedure shut the engine down a hung star and a jet engine is often caused by the starter cutting off too soon which statement below reflects a typical requirement when towing some aircraft if the aircraft has a steerable nose wheel a torque link lock should be set to full swivel which of the following statements is true regarding tie down of small aircraft nylon or Dacron Rope is preferred to Manila rope When approaching the front of our idling jet engine the hazard area extends forward of the engine approximately 25 feet which of the following is the most satisfactorily satisfactory extinguishing agent for use on a carburetor or intake fire carbon dioxide if a radial engine has been shut down for more than 30 minutes the propeller should be rotated through at least two revolutions to check for hydraulic lock the priming of a fuel injected horizontally opposed engine is accomplished by placing the fuel control lever in the full Rich position the most important condition to be monitored during start after fuel flow begins in a turbine engine is the EGT tit or Itt which of the following conditions has the most potential for causing engine damage when starting or attempting to start a turbine engine hot start how is a flooded engine encrypted with a float type carburetor cleared of excessive fuel crank the engine with the starter or by hand with the mixture control and cut off ignition switch off and the throttle fully open until the fuel charge has been cleared generally when an induction fire occurs during starting of a recap engine the first course of action should be to continue cranking and start the engine if possible when starting and ground operating an aircraft engine the aircraft should be positioned to head into the wind primarily for engine cooling purposes and approaching the rear of idling turbojet or turbofan engine the hazard area extends after the engine approximately 100 feet if a hot start occurs during starting of a turbine power plant what is the likely cause the fuel layer mixture was excessively rich what effect if any will Aviation gasoline mixed with jet fuel have on a turbine engine Tetra ethyl LED and the gasoline forms deposits on the turbine blades jet fuel jet fuel is is of high viscosity than Aviation gasoline and therefore it holds contaminants better true when towing a large aircraft a person should be in the cockpit to operate the brakes what their veining tendency is greatest when taxiing a tail wheel type airplane in the direction in a direct crosswind when taxing an airplane with a quartering Tailwind the elevators and upwind aileron should be held in the down position when taxiing or Towing an aircraft a flashing red light from the control tower means move clear of the runway slash taxiway immediately a person should approach or leave in a helicopter in the Pilot's field of vision whatever the engine is running in order to avoid the Tail Road when taxing or Towing an aircraft a flashing white light from the control tower means return to starting point when taxing or Towing an aircraft an alternating red and green light from the control tower means okay to proceed but use Extreme Caution when stopping a nose wheel type airplane after taxiing your Towing the nose wheel should be left pointed straight ahead on the first starting when first starting to move an aircraft while taxing it is important to test the brakes the color of 100 low lead fuel is blue how are F how are Aviation fuels which possess greater anti-lock quality qualities and 100 octane classifieds by performance numbers why is ethyl dibromide added to Avgas lead oxide from a cylinder combustion Chambers both gasoline and kerosene have certain advantages for use as turbine fuels which theme is shown in reference to the advantages of each kerosene has a high heat energy slash value per unit volume than gasoline foreign vaporization absorption of heat characteristics of detonation are rapid rise and cylinder pressure excessive cylinder head temperature and a decrease in engine power if you let vaporizes too readily may cause vapor lock Jeff fuel number identifiers are type numbers and have no relation to the fuel's performance in the aircraft engine the main difference between grades 100 and 100 low lead fuel are lead content and color characteristics of Aviation gasoline are high heat value High volatility is added to Avgas to improve the gasoline's performance in the engine if Eula does not vaporize readily enough can cause hard starting a primary reason why ordinary or otherwise not improved cleaning compounds should not be used when washing aircraft is because their use can result in hydrogen embrittlement in the metal structures how many magnesium engine parts be cleaned wash with a commercial solvent decarbonize and scrape or grip blast when an anodized surface coating is damaged in service it can be partially restored by chemical surface treatment for which of the following reasons would a water brake test be conducted to make certain that a bare metal surface is 30 thoroughly clean select the solvent recommended for wipe down of clean surfaces just before painting alphabetic napsa [Music] nicad battery cases and drain surfaces which have been affected by electrolyte should be neutralized with the with a solution of boric acid which of the following are acceptable to use when utilizing chemical cleaning agents on aircraft cotton fiber wiping cloths when using a flammable agent atomizing spray equipment select the solvent used to clean acrylics and rubber alphatic naps off fade surfaces fade surfaces cause concern and chemical cleaning because of the danger of entrapping corrosive materials cost including causted cleaning products used on aluminum structures have the effect of producing [Music] corrosion fretting corrosion is most likely to occur when two surfaces fit together tightly but can be moved relative to one another the rust or corrosion that occurs with most metals is the result of a tendency for them to return to their natural state which of the following are desired effects of using alodyne on aluminum alloy a slightly rough surface and increased corrosion resistance which are the which of the listed conditions is not one of the requirements for corrosion to occur the presence of a passive oxide film the lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the presence of corrosion residual product buildup is called exfoliation in an electrolytic chemical treatment for aluminum Alloys to increase corrosion resistance and paint bonding qualities is called allodizing which of the following are acceptable to use in cleaning anodized surfaces aluminum wool fiber bristle brush intergradular corrosion and aluminum alloy Parts cannot always be detected by surface indications which of the following which of the following would mean which of the following may not be detectable even by careful visual inspection of the surface of aluminum allo parts or structures intergranular corrosion what may be used to remove corrosion from high loose highly stressed steel surfaces fine grit aluminum oxide the primary cause of intergranular corrosion is improper heat treatment corrosion should be removed from magnesium Parts with a stiff non-metallic brush why is it important not to rotate the crankshaft after corrosion preventative mixture has been put into the cylinders on the engine in the engine preparing it for storage the Seal of the corrosion preventative mixture will be broken which of the following is an acceptable first step procedure to help prevent scratching when cleaning a transparent plastic surface flush the surface with clean water what should be done to prevent rapid deterioration when oil or grease comes in contact with a tire wipe the tire with a dry cloth followed by a wash down and rinsed with soap and water galvanic corrosion is likely to be most rapid and severe when the surface area of the anodic metal is smaller than the surface area of the cathodic metal corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of contact between two unlike metals which of these materials are most anodic magnesium the interior surface of sealed structural steel tubing would be best protected against corrosion by which of the following methods the coating of linseed oil which of these materials is the most cathodic stainless steel of the following when when and or where is galvanic corrosion most likely to occur at the interface of a steel Fastener and aluminum alloy inspection plate in the presence of an electrolyte one way of obtaining increased resistance to stress corrosion cracking is by creating compressive stresses via shot peening on the metal surface the corrosion process which of the following is true in the galvanic or electrochemical series for Metals the most anodic metals are those that will give up electrons most easily true spilled Mercury on aluminum causes rapid and severe corrosion that is very difficult to control what is 10 what power of 10 is equal to 1 million 10 to the ninth power find the square root of 1746 41.78 the total piston displacement of a specific engine is the volume displaced by all Pistons during one revolution of the crankshaft what is the surface area of a cube when a side edge measures 7.25 315.375 square inches if a if the volume of a cylinder with the Piston at bottom center is 84 cubic inches and the Piston displacement is 70 cubic inches then what is the compression ratio six two one Express 7 8 as a percentage 87.5 percent where is the record of compliance with ads or manufacturers service bulletins normally indicated foreign aircraft maintenance records if we're performed on an aircraft has been done satisfactorily the signature of an authorized person on the maintenance records for maintenance or alterations performed constitutes approval for returns of service only for their work performed during an annual inspection if a defect is found which makes the aircraft unair worthy the person disapproving most provide a written notice of the defect to the owner what is the means by which the FAA notifies aircraft owners and other interested persons of unsafe conditions and prescribes the conditions under which the product may be continued to be operated airworthiness directives 80s which is an appliance major repair overhaul of a hydraulic pressure pump where should you find this entry remove the right wing from aircraft and removed skin from Outer six feet repair buckled Spar 49 inches from tip in accordance with Figure 8 and the manufacturer's structural repair manual number 28-1 you can find this in form 337 since this is a major repair slash alteration which maintenance action is an airframe major repair the repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams which aircraft record entry is the best description of the replacement of several damaged helicoils in a casting a quarter inch Dash 20 inch standard helicoils were replaced the damaged inserts were extracted the tapped holes were gauged then new inserts installed and tangs removed foreign best describes the action taken for a control cable showing approximately 20 wear on several of the individual outer wires at a fair lead wear with an acceptable limits repair not necessary which maintenance record entry best describes the action taken for a 0.125 inch deep vent in a straight section of half inch aluminum alloy tubing dented section removed and replaced with identical new tubing flared to 37 degrees which statement is true regarding the requirements for maintenance record format any format that provides record continuity and includes the required information may be used 100 hour inspection is completed if separate maintenance records for the airframe power play and propeller are maintained where is the entry for the inspection recorded in each record for aircraft operated under part 91 one is the aircraft total time required to be recorded in aircraft maintenance records after satisfactory completing inspections what's the difference between a maintenance record entry and an inspection record entry the aircraft total time is required to be included only in the inspection entry to more space is needed for work description entered on form 337 what information should be included in the attached sheets in addition to the rest of the work description aircraft nationality and registration work and the date the work was complied which aircraft record entry best describes a repair of a debt in a tubular steel structure dented at a cluster well welded a reinforcing plate over the dented area who is responsible for making the entry of the maintenance records after an annual 100 hour or Progressive inspection [Music] a person approving or disapproving for return to service for aircraft operated under part 91 which of the following records must be retained for at least a year one year or until the work is repeated or superseded foreign s alterations preventative maintenance 100 hour annual and Progressive inspections a Certified mechanic without an inspection authorization who signs the appropriate block or form 337 is doing what certifying that the work was done in accordance with the requirements of 14 CFR part 43. for aircraft operated under part 91 which of the following records must be retained and transferred with the aircraft when it sold records of the current status of applicable ads in the date and time when reoccurring a these are next due which should an aircraft owner was provided a list of discrepancies on an aircraft that was not approved for return to service after an annual inspection which of the following is true concerning who may correct these discrepancies inappropriately rated mechanic when a discrepancy list is provided to an aircraft owner or operator after an inspection it says in effect that except for these discrepancies the item inspected is airworthy in order to reconstruct lost or destroyed aircraft maintenance records what is necessary to establish [Music] total time and service of the airframe what is slash are the appropriate actions concerning minor repairs performed on a certified on a certificated aircraft entries must be made in the aircraft's maintenance records when work is performed on an aircraft that necessitates the use of FAA form 337 who should prepare the form the person who performs or supervises the work what is the status of data used as a basis for approving major repairs or alterations for return to service data must be FAA approved prior to its use for that purpose which statement is true regarding the use of FAA form 337 Fae form 337 is not authorized for the use other than U.S registered aircraft after making a certain repaired Zone aircraft engine that is to be returned to service and FAA form 337 is prepared how many copies are required and what is the disposition of the completed forms to one copy for the aircraft owner and one copy for the FAA who is responsible for the upkeep and required maintenance records for an aircraft the aircraft owner an aircraft was not approved for returns of service after an annual inspection and the owner wanted to fly the aircraft to another maintenance base which statement is correct [Music] the owner must obtain a special flight permit each person performing an annual or 100 hour inspection shall use a checklist that contains at least those items in the appendix of 14 CFR part 43. an FAA form 337 is used to record and document major repairs and major alterations after a mechanic holding an airframe and power plant rating completes a 100 hour inspection what action is required before the aircraft is returned to service make the proper entries in the aircraft's maintenance records which of the following made a certified airframe and power plant mechanic perform on aircraft and approve for return to service a 100 hour inspection and a progressive inspection under specified circumstances if a double-acting actuating cylinder in a 3000 psi system has a piston with a surface area of three square inches on the extension side and a rod with a cross-sectional area of one square inch attached to a piston on the other side approximately how much force will the actuator be able to produce when retracting 6000 PSI the bowling the boiling point of a given liquid varies directly with pressure which of the following is not considered a method of heat transfer diffusion which condition is the actual amount of water vapor in a mixture of air and water absolute humidity under which conditions will the rate of flow of your liquid through a metering orifice or jet be greatest all other factors mean equal unmetered pressure is 17 PSI metered pressure 5 PSI atmospheric pressure 14.7 PSI which will weigh the least 35 parts of dry air and 65 parts of water vapor what is the ratio of water vapor actually present in the atmosphere so the amount that would be present if the air was saturated at the prevailing temperature and pressure relative humidity speed of sound in the atmosphere changes with a change in temperature speed of sound in the atmosphere is most affected by variations in which of the following ambient temperature if the volume of a confined gas is doubled without the addition of more gas the pressure will assume the temperature remains constant it will be reduced to one-half its original value if the temperature of a confined liquid is held constant and its pressure is tripled the volume will remain the same which atmospheric condition will cause a true landing speed of an aircraft to be the greatest thank you high temperature with high humidity the fluid pressure is 800 PSI in a one and a half inch line supplying an actuating cylinder with a piston area of 10 square inches the force exerted on the Piston will be 8 000 pounds in physics which of the following factors are necessary to determine power force exerted distance moved time required which statement concerning heat and or temperature is true temperature is a measure of the kinetic energy of the molecules of any substance what is absolute humidity actual amount of water vapor in a mixture of air and water the temperature to which humid air must be cooled at constant pressure to become saturated is called dew point if both the volume of the absolute temperature of a confined gas are doubled the pressure will not change if all or significant significant part of a stall strip is missing on an airplane wing their likely result will be asymmetrical lateral control at or near stall angles of attack the purpose of a stall strip on an airplane wing is to ensure that the wing root areas stall first an airplane wing is designed to produce lift resulting from positive air pressure below the wing surface and negative air pressure above the wing surface along with the downward deflection of air purpose of aircraft when dihedral is to increase lateral stability aspect ratio of a wing is defined as the ratio of the wingspan to mean cord a wing with very high aspect ratio in comparison with a low aspect ratio Wing will have a low stall speed the desired effect of using winglets on an aircraft's wingtips is to increase the lift to drag ratio which of the following is Newton's first law of motion generally termed the law of inertia everybody persists persists in its state of rest or Motion in a straight line unless acted upon by some outside force ads are issued primarily to correct and unsafe condition which of the following is true a SDC may be issued to more than one applicant for the same design change providing each applicant shows compliance with the applicable airworthiness requirement primary responsibility for compliance with ads lies with the aircraft owner slash operator an aircraft tcds sheet contains location of the data suitability for use of a specific propeller with a particular engine airplane combination can be determined by reference to what informational source aircraft specifications or aircraft type certificate type certificate data sheet on on an airworthy at the time of sale aircraft is sold the airworthiness certificate is transferred with the aircraft the issuance of an airworthiness certificate is governed by 14 CFR part 21. specifications pertaining to an aircraft model manufactured under the type certificate of which less than 50 are shown on the FAA aircraft registry can be found in the aircraft listings what are technical descriptions of certificated propellers found propeller tcds what information is generally contained in the aircraft specifications or tcds control surface movements placards required on an aircraft are specified in aircraft specifications or tcds technical information about older aircraft models of which no more than 50 Uranus servers can be found in the aircraft listings which of the following are sometimes used as an authorization to deviate from an aircraft original type design FAA form 337 stcs air worthiness directives which of the following is true the FAA regulations require approval after compliance with the data of a STC true which regulation provides information regarding instrument range markings for an airplane certified in the normal category 14 CFR part 23. which regulation provides the error worthiness standards for an airplane certified in the normal category CFR part 23 which of the following is true a certificated a certificated power plant mechanic may make a minor repair on an aluminum propeller and approve for return to service true an aircraft mechanic is privileged to perform major alterations on U.S certified aircraft however the work must be done in accordance with FAA approved technical Data before the aircraft can be returned to service which is not approved data foreign -2a [Music] what is the maintenance reporting responsibility of the person who complies with an ad make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment following is true FAA Publications such as technical standard orders airworthiness directives tcds sheets and aircraft specifications and supplemental type certificates are all approved data that is true which of the following are true the air transportation Association of America specification number 100 establishes a standard for the presentation of technical data and maintenance manuals true divides the aircraft into numbered systems and substance systems in order to simplify locating maintenance instructions also true aviation maintenance alerts formally general aviation airworthiness alerts provide information about aircraft problems and suggested corrective actions the following words are an example of what kind of statement in an ad required within the next 25 hours time and service after the effective date of this ad unless already accomplished compliance the action required by an ad may take what form inspection parts replacement design modification change and operating procedures tcds sheets are issued for which of the following products aircraft engines propellers what is a mechanic responsible for tracking ad compliance when performing an inspection required under part 91 125 or 135 how long are ad compliance records required to be kept they shall be retained and then transferred with the aircraft when it's sold pcds sheet designate designation code to pcsm mean pcsm means to place number of seats closed C model plane which of the following includes all the regulatory definitions of maintenance overhaul repair parts replacement inspection and preservation what is the maximum penalty for cheating or other unauthorized conduct when taking an FAA mechanic test ineligibility to receive any certificate or waiting for one year at suspension or revocation of any certificate held under FAA regulations and air and aviation maintenance technician is required to perform maintenance on an aircraft so that it it is at least equal to its original or properly altered condition certificating mechanics with a power plant rating May perform 100 hour inspections required by the FAA on power plants propellers or other components thereof and may release the same to service a repair as performed on airframe xiaomin the restoration of the airframe to a condition for safe operation after damage or deterioration the replacement of fabric or fabric covered Parts such as Wings fuselages stabilizer or controlled surfaces is considered to be major repair even though no alteration or repair is performed which is classified as a major repair splicing of skin sheets the 100 hour inspection required by FAA regulations for certain aircraft being operated for higher may be performed by appropriately rated mechanics and approved by them for return to service a person working under the supervision of a Certified mechanic with an airframe and Powerful rate power plant rating is not authorized to perform a 100 hour inspection certified mechanics under their General certificate privileges May perform 100 hour inspections of instruments an airworthiness director requires that a propeller be altered certified mechanics could perform and approve the work for returns of service if it is a minor alteration the replacement of a damaged vertical stabilizer with a new identical stabilizer purchased from an aircraft manufacturer is considered a minor repair FAA certificated mechanics May approve for the return to service a minor alteration they have performed appropriate to the ratings they hold [Music] part of the FAA regulations prescribed the requirements for issuing mechanic certificates and Associated ratings in the general operating rules for the holder of these certificates and ratings FAA part 65. a Certified mechanic shall not exercise the Privileges of the certificate certificate and rating unless within the preceding 24 calendar months the administrator has found that the certificate holder is able to do the work or this or the certificate holder has served as a mechanic under the certificate and rating for at least six months under title 14 under title 14 of the code of federal regulations what is the maximum penalty for falsification alteration or fraudulent reproduction of certificates log books reports and Records suspension or revocation of any certificate help how long does the holder of a certificate issued under 14 CFR part 65 have to notify the FAA after any change in their permanent mailing address foreign what is the normal duration a mechanic certificate with airframe or power what is the normal duration a mechanic certificate with airframe and power plant ratings until surrendered suspended or revoked why is a mechanic applicant issued a temporary certificate after successfully completion of the required tests to allow for a review of his or her application and supplementary documents what is the maximum duration of a temporary Airman certificate 120 days one may an otherwise qualified mechanic who does not read write speak and understand the English language be eligible to apply for a mechanic certificate when employed outside the United States by a U.S air carrier which of the following statements is true for a certificated and appropriately appropriately rated mechanic regarding repairs and alterations he she may perform an airframe major repair or major alteration but cannot approve the work for a return to service who is responsible for determining that materials used in aircraft maintenance and repair are their proper type and perform to appropriate standards the installing person or agency which of these Publications contains standards for protrusion of bolts studs and screws through self-locking nuts AC 4313-1b the replacement of a damaged engine mount with a new identical engine mount purchased from an aircraft manufacturer is considered a minor repair who has the authority to approve for return to service a propeller after a 100 hour inspection a mechanic with a power plant rating instrument repairs may be performed by an FAA approved Instrument Repair Station how is a quality system assured find internal reporting and auditing system Professor James reason explains that Errors By aircraft mechanics fall into through 103 categories these categories are slips mistakes and violations many areas of Aviation have shifted their focus from eliminating error to preventing and managing error when we think of Aviation safety in a contemporary way human error is the intervention point