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Comprehensive AP Human Geography Review

AP HUMAN GEOGRAPHY THE GRAND REVIEW Unit I: Geography: Its Nature and Perspective Identify each type of map:

Match the following: 5. a computer system that stores, organizes, retrieves, analyzes, and displays geographic data 6. the forms superimposed on the physical environment by the activities of humans 7. the spread of an idea or innovation from its source 8. interactions between human societies and the physical environment 9. a space-based global navigation satellite system 10. the physical environment, rather than social conditions, determines culture 11. the small- or large-scale acquisition of information of an object or phenomenon, either in recording or real time a. cultural diffusion b. cultural ecology c. cultural landscape d. environmental determinism e. GIS f. GPS g. remote sensing Choose the one that does not belong: 12. a. township and range b. clustered rural settlement c. grid street pattern 13. a. site b. situation c. its relative location 14. a. latitude and longitude b. site c. situation d. absolute location 15. a. globalization b. nationalism c. foreign investment d. multinational corporations 16. a. major airport b. grid street pattern c. major central park d. natural harbor e. public sports facility 17. a. Westernization b. uniform consumption preferences c. enhanced communications d. local traditions 18. a. time zones b. China c. United States railroads d. 15 degrees Match the following (some regions have more than one answer): 19. formal region 20. functional region 21. vernacular region 22. The “why of where” refers to a. Milwaukee b. the Milwaukee Journal Sentinel c. Wisconsin d. the South e. an airline hub f. Rust Belt a. geography’s emphasis on landscape features. b. spatial patterns on the landscape. c. a definition of geography that is simply locational. d. the idea that the explanation of a spatial pattern is crucial. e. the depiction of a region’s physical features. 23. Which of the following sets of maps would help explain how scale of inquiry affects truth? a. maps showing the area of France before and after surveying b. maps of Hudson Bay drawn by Native Americans and by the earliest European travelers c. maps showing Michigan’s population density by counties and the United States population density by state d. maps showing the number of auto thefts per block in Seattle in the decades before and after the Great Depression e. maps of gang graffiti in Philadelphia Unit II: Population and Migration Label each of the following population pyramids as Stage 1, Stage 2, Stage 3, Stage 4 or Stage 5 of the demographic transition:

  1. ________________________ 25. ________________________ 26. ________________________

  2. ________________________ 28. ________________________ 29. ________________________ Label each of the following Detroit, MI; Laredo, TX; Lawrence, KS; Naples, FL; Unalaska, AK; or USA: 30. ________________________ 31. ________________________ 32. ________________________

  3. ________________________ 34. ________________________ 35. ________________________ Match the following:

  4. the ability of a resource base to sustain its population

  5. a population shift from urban to rural areas

  6. the number of working-age people compared to the number of people too old or too young to work

  7. migration within a state

  8. migration between states

  9. the difference between in-migration and out migration

  10. the process by which immigrants from a particular place follow others from that place to another place a. brain drain b. carrying capacity c. chain migration d. counterurbanization e. dependency ratio f. external migration g. infant mortality rate

  11. flight of talented people away from an area 44. CBR-CDR per thousand

  12. number of children a woman is likely to have 46. number of deaths under the age of 2 per thousand Choose the cause of the other two:

  13. a. water b. population growth c. agriculture

  14. a. Columbus discovers America h. internal migration i natural increase rate j. net migration k. total fertility rate b. crops exchanged between the Western and Eastern hemisphere c. millions of Native Americans are killed by disease

  15. a. one-child policy b. poverty c. overpopulation

  16. a. poverty b. drug trafficking c. guest workers

  17. a. high standard of living b. large metropolitan population c. Stage 3 of the demographic transition Choose the effect of the other two:

  18. a. poverty b. war c. migration

  19. a. racism b. exclusion of non-white immigrants c. quota laws from the 1920s to the 1960s

  20. a. young age structure b. not married c. high level of migration

  21. a. cold weather b. warm coastal waters c. population clusters near the equator and the coast

  22. a. increased trade b. rich natural resources c. population cluster on the coast Identify each of the following as a “pull” factor or a “push” factor:

  23. ethnic cleansing 58. natural disaster 59. available jobs

  24. war

  25. chain migration 62. overpopulation

  26. Two-thirds of the world’s population is clustered in four regions. Which of the following is not one of these four regions? a. East Asia b. Southeast Asia c. Sub-Saharan Africa d. Europe e. South Asia

  27. Assuming a world population of 5,700,000,000 and an annual growth rate of 1.6 percent, how many people will be added to the world’s population in the next year? a. 912,000 b. 9,120,000 c. 91,200,000 d. 912,000,000 e. 9,120,000,000

  28. The population of the United States is approximately 300 million, and the land area is approximately 9 million square kilometers. The arithmetic density of the United States is approximately a. 30 square kilometers per person. b. 30 persons per square kilometer. c. 0.03 square kilometers per person. d. 0.03 persons per square kilometer. e. 300 persons per square kilometer.

  29. Which continent(s) is/are commonly associated with high numbers of refugees in the early twenty first century? I. Africa II. Asia III. Australia IV. Europe V. North America VI. South America a. I b. II c. I and II d. I, II, IV e. I, II, VI f. III and IV g. IV and V h. IV, V, VI Unit III: Cultural Patterns and Processes Classify each of the following religions as monotheistic or polytheistic and ethnic or universalizing, and indicate their hearth region. religion mono or polytheistic ethnic or universalizing hearth region 67. Buddhism

    1. Hinduism

    2. Islam

    3. Judaism

    4. Mormonism

    5. Orthodox Christianity

    6. Protestantism

    7. Roman Catholicism

Match the following: 75. fragmentation of a region into smaller units 76. a common language 77. an example of ethnic nationalism 78. an example of linguistic nationalism 79. an example of linguistic fragmentation 80. an example of how religion can influence geography 81. minority branch of Islam but majority in Iraq and Iran 82. architectural style that diffused from New England to the Great Lakes a. Balkanization b. Cape Cod c. feng shui d. Gaelic e. lingua franca f. Nunavut g. Scandinavian h. Shiite Identify each of the following as a centripetal force or a centrifugal force: 83. uneven development 84. substate nationalism 85. linguistic homogeneity 86. a strong tradition of local governance 87. national symbols 88. compact state 89. fragmented state 90. external threats Classify each of the following as folk culture or popular culture 91. the Amish 92. sports 93. small scale 94. large scale 95. slow change 96. rapid change 97. relocation diffusion 98. cultural homogeneity 99. traditional diet 100. McDonalds 101. blue jeans 102. modern communication 103. All of the following twentieth-century migration streams were propelled by persecution or open conflict EXCEPT a. Asians leaving Uganda. b. Kosovars leaving Yugoslavia. c. Tutsis leaving Rwanda. d. Hindus leaving Pakistan. e. Mexicans leaving Mexico. 104. If four languages have similar words for numbers and the names of fish, but different names for a certain disease, what might be concluded about the time at which the disease first diffused? a. The disease spread among a population that later divided and evolved into four different languages. b. The population divided and evolved into the four different languages, and then the disease spread. c. The disease spread to two different populations that later divided into different languages. d. The disease and language spread to four different regions at the same time at the same rate. e. No conclusion is possible 105. Which of the following correctly sequences the continuum from language family to dialect? a. Afro-Asiatic, Semitic, Arabic, Berber b. Sino-Tibetan, Sinitic, Mandarin, Chinese c. Indo-European, Indo-Iraman, Hindi, Bengali d. Indo-European, Baltic-Slavic, Russian, Ukranian e. Indo-European, Germanic, English, Midland-Northern 106. Contact zones between religions are most likely to be volatile when they are a. inhabited by two major groups with divergent religious beliefs. b. made up of three or more religious groups. c. characterized by considerable interaction between religious groups. d. also language contact zones. e. associated with competing ethnonational claims to territory. 107. ________ is to Canada as ________ is to the United States. a. French; English b. French; Spanish c. presidential government; parliamentary government d. conflict over ethnicity; conflict over language e. northern hemisphere; southern hemisphere 108. Mexico is I. the largest number of legal immigrants to the United States II. the largest number of illegal immigrants to the United States III. a member of NAFTA IV. a member of the OAS V predominantly Catholic a. II, V e. II, IV, V b. I, III, V f. I, II, III, IV c. II, III, V g. I, II, III, V d. I, IV, V h. I, II, III, IV, V 109. Which of the following aspects of diffusion of Western culture threaten non-Western ways of life? I. loss of traditional values II. subjugation of women III. Western control of media IV. alteration of traditional landscapes V. pollution a. I and II b. I and III c. I, II, IV d. I, III, IV, V e. I, II, III, IV, V Unit IV: Political Organization of Space 110. Put the following in order from the largest to the smallest: census tract, county, municipality, nation-state, province, empire 111. G_______________, g_______________, g_______________ Match the following: 112. nation state 113. multi-nation state 114. multi-state nation a. Korea b. Japan c. Indonesia Match the following: 115. compact state 116. elongated state 117. prorupted state 118. perforated state 119. fragmented state 120. landlocked state a. Afghanistan b. Indonesia c. Nicaragua d. South Africa e. Vatican City f. Vietnam Match the following (some states have more than one answer): 121. Brazil 122. China 123. Mesopotamia 124. Taiwan a. was a hearth b. was a colony c. is a sovereign state d. has a forward capital Match the following (some states have more than one answer): 125. unitary state 126. federal state 127. confederal state 128. devolution a. Canada b. France c. Germany d. Mexico e. Switzerland f. USA Place the following colonial powers under the appropriate headings: Belgium, Britain, France, Germany, Italy, Netherlands, Portugal 129. Africa, 1850 130. Africa, 1900 131. Africa, 1950 Match the following: 132. model that demonstrates the transfer of resources from less developed to more developed areas 133. the fringe of a state 134. land beyond a border 135. the node of a state 136. an area the retains a distinction from a larger area 137. manipulating boundaries for political gain 138. an area rather than a line Label each boundary physical or cultural and give an example a. core-periphery b. enclave c. frontier d. gerrymandering e. heartland f. hinterland g. rimland

boundary physical or cultural example 139. mountain

140. language




141. religion




142. river




143. geometric




144. the Green Line

145. The European Union, the Arab League, and the United Nations are all examples of a. pressure groups b. nation-states c. centrifugal organizations d. supranational organizations e. federations 146. Which of the following has fostered the most significant economic growth by eliminating import tariffs between member states? a. European Union (EU) b. Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) c. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) d. Association of Caribbean States (ACS) e. United Nations (UN) 147. The provisions of the United Nations Conference on the Law of the Sea give coastal countries navigational and economic sovereignty over which of the following zones? a. twelve-nautical-mile territorial sea zone and part of the Arctic Circle b. export processing zone (EPZ) c. 200-nautical-mile exclusive economic zone d. empowerment zone e. continental shelf 148. An increasing number of states have adopted a federal form of government primarily to a. grant different ethnicities or nationalities more effective representation. b. encourage the breakup of the superpower alliances. c. govern compact states more effectively. d. deploy scarce resources efficiently. e. meet all of the above needs. Unit V: Agriculture and Rural Land Use Match the following: 149. terracing, Mediterranean agriculture, pastoralism 150. terracing, shifting agriculture 151. arid climate, irrigation, little pork production, pastoralism 152. wheat, little pork production, pastoralism 153. factory farms, large pork production 154. wheat, Mediterranean agriculture 155. maize, irrigation Choose the one that does not belong: 156. a. increases in the amount of land under cultivation b. increases in the agricultural workforce c. increases in the use of energy and technology a. Egypt b. Greece c. Italy d. Peru e. Mexico f. Turkey g. USA 157. a. plantation farming b. hunting and gathering c. subsistence agriculture 158. a. efficient transportation b. regionalized cuisine c. corporately controlled farms 159. a. factory farms b. genetic engineering c. high food prices d. Green Revolution 160. a. California b. Mediterranean agriculture c. “happy cows” d. sharecropping e. wheat 161. a. soy beans b. coffee c. wheat d. corn e. rice 162. a. beef b. railroad c. Milwaukee, 1900 163. a. hunting and gathering b. It is limited to tropical areas c. gender-based division of labor d. Stage 1 of the demographic transition 168. What is a milkshed and why is it important? 164. a. Great Plains Native Americans—buffalo b. Eskimos—snow c. Hawiians—wigwams d. Wisconsin settlers—log cabins e. Great Plains settlers—sod and thatch 165. a. shifting agriculture b. tropical climate c. global warming d. depletion of soil e. commercial agriculture 166. a. sustainable agriculture b. limited use of chemicals c. integration of crops and livestock d. use of pesticide resistant seed e. organic farms 167. a. nomads b. pastoralism c. hunting and gathering d. subsistence agriculture e. shifting agriculture f. terracing 169. Isolated farmsteads in the United States evolved as a result of all of the following EXCEPT a. political stability. b. colonization by individual pioneer families. c. agricultural private enterprise. d. government land policy. e. physical barriers preventing communal farm practices. 170. Grain raised in the United States is used today primarily as a. human food. b. a source of fuel. c. livestock feed. d. an export to foreign countries. e. raw material for various industries. 171. With respect to the relationship between culture, religion, and the physical environment a. few religions derive meaningful events from the physical environment. b. religious ideas may be responsible for some of the changes people make in the physical environment. c. religion is no longer an important source of identification for a distinct cultural group. d. all religions appeal primarily to people living in their land of origin. e. All of the above are true. 172. A common difference(s) between farms in an LDC (like Pakistan) vs. farms in an MDC (like the United States) that grow the same crop is
a. the amount of crop produced in a year b. the importance of the crop to the farmer c. the income derived from crops d. A and B e. A and C Unit VI: Industrialization and Economic Development Label each of the following as bulk-reducing, bulk-gaining, footloose, or just-in-time: 173. soft-drink bottling 174. brewing 175. nickel smelting 176. baking 177. automobile assembly 178. autoparts manufacturing 179. electronics manufacturing 180. call centers Label each of the following as primary, secondary, tertiary, or quaternary economic activity: 181. extract natural resources from the environment 182. transform raw materials into finished products 183. involve the collection, processing, and manipulation of information 184. involve the exchange of goods and the provision of services 185. involve the production of fresh produce for urban markets Indicate the country or countries: 186. NAFTA 187. highest consumption of fossil fuels per capita 188. the Four Asian Tigers 189. maquiladoras 190. Atlantic-Pacific canal Match the following: 191. high terminal cost, high line cost, high route flexibility 192. high terminal cost, low line cost, high route flexibility 193. high terminal cost, low line cost, low route flexibility 194. low terminal cost, high line cost, high route flexibility a. airplane b. railroad c. ship d. truck Label the five stages of Rostow’s model and briefly describe the characteristics: 195. Stage 1

196. Stage 2




197. Stage 3




198. Stage 4




199. Stage 5

Assume a Stage 5 country and indicate if each of the following would be high or low: 200. standard of living 201. CBR 202. CDR 203 NIR 204. life expectancy 205. literacy 206. GDP 207. GEM Match the following: 210. banking, finance, insurance 211. deforestation 212. desertification 213. ecotourism 214. ozone depletion 215. smog 208. pollution 209. job in the informal sector a. Brazil b. chlorofluorocarbons c. Mexico City d. national parks e. New York, London, and Tokyo f. Sahel 216. Which of the following arguments help explain why seventy-five percent of those employed in Export Processing Zones, such as maquiladoras, are women? I. Women have better educational qualifications than men. II. Women are paid less than men. III. Many employers consider women to be more dexterous than men. IV. Many employers consider women more likely to organize unions than men. a. I and III only b. II and III only c. II and IV only d. I, II, and III only e. I, II, III, and IV 217. Which of the following has contributed most to the deindustrialization of regions like the English Midlands and the North American Manufacturing Belt? a. the increased percentage of women in the labor force b. competition from foreign imports c. environmental legislation d. the formation of free trade associations e. the decline of labor unions 218. In recent decades, all of the following have played a major role in the rapid growth of Sun Belt cities of the United States EXCEPT a. immigration from Latin America. b. high levels of per capita federal spending in the South and West. c. cheap land and labor. d. climatic changes leading to colder northern winters. e. the increasing demand for retirement and resort centers. 219. United Nations recognition of a state’s “exclusive economic zone” allows the state to a. establish economic free trade zones within the sovereign territory of other states. b. claim national economic jurisdiction over 200 nautical miles of water extending from its coast. c. limit importation of competitive goods and services from other countries. d. protect domestic production by imposing tariffs on all foreign-made products. e. form limited economic alliances with other countries. 220. Contemporary manufacturing is characterized by a. production facilities that are generally located as close as possible to the sites of raw material production. b. strong unions and localized involvement in all facets of the production process. c. spatial disaggregation of the production process. d. reliance on highly skilled labor at all phases of the production process. e. production facilities located close to railroads. Unit VII: Cities and Urban Land Use Label each country with either the rank-size rule or the primate city rule: 221. Canada 222. France 223. Germany Choose the one that does not belong: 227. a. megalopolis b. core area c. Boston to Washington, D.C. d. Los Angeles to San Diego 228. a. Brookfield Square b. edge city c. gentrification d. suburban sprawl e. white flight 229. a. agglomeration b. business park c. decentralization d. edge cities 230. a. blockbusting and racial steering b. redlining by financial institutions c. concentration of public housing d. fixed school district boundaries e. Economic Enterprise Zones 224. India 225. South Korea 226. United States 231. a. France b. Mesopotamia c. Mexico d. North China e. the Indus Valley 232. a. world cities b. Chicago c. Mumbai d. Tokyo 233. a. 500 B.C.—defensive sites b. A.D. 1700—water power c. A.D. 1800—railroad junctions d. pre-1950—navigable waterways e. post-1950--- highways 234. a. urban b. Africa c. Asia d. South America 235. Place the following in order from least recent to most recent: “big box” superstore, downtown business district, shopping mall, Internet Match the following: 236. export primarily to consumers outside the settlement 237. sell to people within the settlement 238. basic industries minus non-basic industries 239. related to talent 240. related to the level of services provided 241. center of Latin American cities 242. provided to people by government 243. downtown 244. the presence of which greatly diminishes the attractiveness of site farther away 245. illegal occupation of a residential district a. basic industries b. CBD c. central plaza d. economic base e. human capital f. intervening opportunities g. non-basic industries h. public housing i. squatter settlement j. urban hierarchy 246. Which of the following environmental issues is of most immediate concern to policy-makers in New England? a. overharvesting of breeding stock by commercial fishers b. oil-spill liability c. desertification by overgrazing of cattle d. intensification of urban heat islands e. generation of electric power by wind 247. Which of the following was NOT a reason for rapid suburbanization in the United States after the Second World War? a. mass production of the automobile b. reduction in long-distance commuting c. expansion of home construction d. expansion of the interstate highway system e. availability of low down payment terms and long-term mortgages 248. According to the rank-size rule, if the largest city in a country has a population of 10 million, the next largest city will have a population of a. 9 million. b. 8 million. c. 7.5 million. d. 5 million. e. 3.5 million. 249. Today, most of the United States and Canadian population lives in which of the following? a. farming areas b. rural non-farming areas c. central cities d. metropolitan areas e. small towns 250. Public transit is more extensive in Western European cities than in the United States primarily because a. Europeans cannot afford cars. b. European governments subsidize public transit. c. density is lower. d. the central city contains fewer high-rises. e. suburbs are built at subway terminals. 251. The attraction of the call center industry to locate in India can best be explained by a. low wages and wide use of English. b. low wages and geographic situational factors. c. wide use of English and the large number of working students. d. Indian students' ability to work at night and geographic situational factors. e. none of the above. 252. Historically, the growth of North American suburbs was most constrained by a. high land values. b. zoning ordinances. c. limited transportation. d. housing shortages. e. cultural preferences. 253. In Latin America, data for employment in many large urban areas are most likely to be incomplete because a. employment is growing too rapidly. b. most people are unemployed. c. people change jobs regularly. d. records are kept mainly for male workers. e. many people work in the informal sector. 254. Spreading parts production and fabrication among many countries or communities a. increases proximity to markets. b. increases large corporations bargaining power with local governments and labor. c. decreases the unequal distribution of industry. d. leaves unmet consumer demand. e. reduces transportation distances. Models You Need to Know Label each of the following models and explain how each can be useful to geographers. 255. 256.
257. 258.
259.
260.