AP HUMAN GEOGRAPHY
THE GRAND REVIEW
Unit I: Geography: Its Nature and Perspective
Identify each type of map:
1. 2.
3. 4.
Match the following:
5. a computer system that stores, organizes, retrieves, analyzes, and displays geographic data
6. the forms superimposed on the physical environment by the activities of humans
7. the spread of an idea or innovation from its source
8. interactions between human societies and the physical environment
9. a space-based global navigation satellite system
10. the physical environment, rather than social conditions, determines culture
11. the small- or large-scale acquisition of information of an object or phenomenon, either in recording or real time
a. cultural diffusion
b. cultural ecology
c. cultural landscape
d. environmental determinism
e. GIS
f. GPS
g. remote sensing
Choose the one that does not belong:
12. a. township and range b. clustered rural settlement c. grid street pattern
13. a. site
b. situation
c. its relative location
14. a. latitude and longitude b. site
c. situation
d. absolute location
15. a. globalization
b. nationalism
c. foreign investment
d. multinational corporations
16. a. major airport
b. grid street pattern
c. major central park
d. natural harbor
e. public sports facility
17. a. Westernization
b. uniform consumption preferences c. enhanced communications
d. local traditions
18. a. time zones
b. China
c. United States railroads
d. 15 degrees
Match the following (some regions have more than one answer):
19. formal region
20. functional region
21. vernacular region
22. The “why of where” refers to
a. Milwaukee
b. the Milwaukee Journal Sentinel c. Wisconsin
d. the South
e. an airline hub
f. Rust Belt
a. geography’s emphasis on landscape features.
b. spatial patterns on the landscape.
c. a definition of geography that is simply locational.
d. the idea that the explanation of a spatial pattern is crucial.
e. the depiction of a region’s physical features.
23. Which of the following sets of maps would help explain how scale of inquiry affects truth?
a. maps showing the area of France before and after surveying
b. maps of Hudson Bay drawn by Native Americans and by the earliest European travelers c. maps showing Michigan’s population density by counties and the United States population density by state
d. maps showing the number of auto thefts per block in Seattle in the decades before and after the Great Depression
e. maps of gang graffiti in Philadelphia
Unit II: Population and Migration
Label each of the following population pyramids as Stage 1, Stage 2, Stage 3, Stage 4 or Stage 5 of the demographic transition:
24. ________________________ 25. ________________________ 26. ________________________
27. ________________________ 28. ________________________ 29. ________________________
Label each of the following Detroit, MI; Laredo, TX; Lawrence, KS; Naples, FL; Unalaska, AK; or USA: 30. ________________________ 31. ________________________ 32. ________________________
33. ________________________ 34. ________________________ 35. ________________________ Match the following:
36. the ability of a resource base to sustain its population
37. a population shift from urban to rural areas
38. the number of working-age people compared to the number of people too old or too young to work
39. migration within a state
40. migration between states
41. the difference between in-migration and out migration
42. the process by which immigrants from a particular place follow others from that place to another place
a. brain drain
b. carrying capacity c. chain migration
d. counterurbanization e. dependency ratio f. external migration
g. infant mortality rate
43. flight of talented people away from an area 44. CBR-CDR per thousand
45. number of children a woman is likely to have 46. number of deaths under the age of 2 per thousand Choose the cause of the other two:
47. a. water
b. population growth
c. agriculture
48. a. Columbus discovers America
h. internal migration i natural increase rate j. net migration k. total fertility rate
b. crops exchanged between the Western and Eastern hemisphere c. millions of Native Americans are killed by disease
49. a. one-child policy
b. poverty
c. overpopulation
50. a. poverty
b. drug trafficking
c. guest workers
51. a. high standard of living
b. large metropolitan population
c. Stage 3 of the demographic transition
Choose the effect of the other two:
52. a. poverty
b. war
c. migration
53. a. racism
b. exclusion of non-white immigrants
c. quota laws from the 1920s to the 1960s
54. a. young age structure
b. not married
c. high level of migration
55. a. cold weather
b. warm coastal waters
c. population clusters near the equator and the coast
56. a. increased trade
b. rich natural resources
c. population cluster on the coast
Identify each of the following as a “pull” factor or a “push” factor:
57. ethnic cleansing 58. natural disaster 59. available jobs
60. war
61. chain migration 62. overpopulation
63. Two-thirds of the world’s population is clustered in four regions. Which of the following is not one of these four regions?
a. East Asia
b. Southeast Asia
c. Sub-Saharan Africa
d. Europe
e. South Asia
64. Assuming a world population of 5,700,000,000 and an annual growth rate of 1.6 percent, how many people will be added to the world’s population in the next year?
a. 912,000
b. 9,120,000
c. 91,200,000
d. 912,000,000
e. 9,120,000,000
65. The population of the United States is approximately 300 million, and the land area is approximately 9 million square kilometers. The arithmetic density of the United States is approximately
a. 30 square kilometers per person.
b. 30 persons per square kilometer.
c. 0.03 square kilometers per person.
d. 0.03 persons per square kilometer.
e. 300 persons per square kilometer.
66. Which continent(s) is/are commonly associated with high numbers of refugees in the early twenty first century?
I. Africa
II. Asia
III. Australia
IV. Europe
V. North America
VI. South America
a. I
b. II
c. I and II d. I, II, IV
e. I, II, VI f. III and IV g. IV and V h. IV, V, VI
Unit III: Cultural Patterns and Processes
Classify each of the following religions as monotheistic or polytheistic and ethnic or universalizing, and indicate their hearth region.
religion
mono or polytheistic
ethnic or universalizing
hearth region
67. Buddhism
68. Hinduism
69. Islam
70. Judaism
71. Mormonism
72. Orthodox Christianity
73. Protestantism
74. Roman Catholicism
Match the following:
75. fragmentation of a region into smaller units 76. a common language
77. an example of ethnic nationalism
78. an example of linguistic nationalism 79. an example of linguistic fragmentation
80. an example of how religion can influence geography
81. minority branch of Islam but majority in Iraq and Iran
82. architectural style that diffused from New England to the Great Lakes
a. Balkanization b. Cape Cod c. feng shui d. Gaelic
e. lingua franca f. Nunavut
g. Scandinavian h. Shiite
Identify each of the following as a centripetal force or a centrifugal force:
83. uneven development
84. substate nationalism
85. linguistic homogeneity
86. a strong tradition of local governance
87. national symbols 88. compact state 89. fragmented state 90. external threats
Classify each of the following as folk culture or popular culture
91. the Amish 92. sports
93. small scale 94. large scale 95. slow change 96. rapid change
97. relocation diffusion 98. cultural homogeneity 99. traditional diet
100. McDonalds
101. blue jeans
102. modern communication
103. All of the following twentieth-century migration streams were propelled by persecution or open conflict EXCEPT
a. Asians leaving Uganda.
b. Kosovars leaving Yugoslavia.
c. Tutsis leaving Rwanda.
d. Hindus leaving Pakistan.
e. Mexicans leaving Mexico.
104. If four languages have similar words for numbers and the names of fish, but different names for a certain disease, what might be concluded about the time at which the disease first diffused?
a. The disease spread among a population that later divided and evolved into four different languages.
b. The population divided and evolved into the four different languages, and then the disease spread.
c. The disease spread to two different populations that later divided into different languages. d. The disease and language spread to four different regions at the same time at the same rate. e. No conclusion is possible
105. Which of the following correctly sequences the continuum from language family to dialect?
a. Afro-Asiatic, Semitic, Arabic, Berber
b. Sino-Tibetan, Sinitic, Mandarin, Chinese
c. Indo-European, Indo-Iraman, Hindi, Bengali
d. Indo-European, Baltic-Slavic, Russian, Ukranian
e. Indo-European, Germanic, English, Midland-Northern
106. Contact zones between religions are most likely to be volatile when they are
a. inhabited by two major groups with divergent religious beliefs.
b. made up of three or more religious groups.
c. characterized by considerable interaction between religious groups.
d. also language contact zones.
e. associated with competing ethnonational claims to territory.
107. ________ is to Canada as ________ is to the United States.
a. French; English
b. French; Spanish
c. presidential government; parliamentary government
d. conflict over ethnicity; conflict over language
e. northern hemisphere; southern hemisphere
108. Mexico is
I. the largest number of legal immigrants to the United States
II. the largest number of illegal immigrants to the United States
III. a member of NAFTA
IV. a member of the OAS
V predominantly Catholic
a. II, V e. II, IV, V
b. I, III, V f. I, II, III, IV
c. II, III, V g. I, II, III, V
d. I, IV, V h. I, II, III, IV, V
109. Which of the following aspects of diffusion of Western culture threaten non-Western ways of life?
I. loss of traditional values
II. subjugation of women
III. Western control of media
IV. alteration of traditional landscapes
V. pollution
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. I, II, IV
d. I, III, IV, V
e. I, II, III, IV, V
Unit IV: Political Organization of Space
110. Put the following in order from the largest to the smallest: census tract, county, municipality, nation-state, province, empire
111. G_______________, g_______________, g_______________
Match the following:
112. nation state 113. multi-nation state 114. multi-state nation
a. Korea b. Japan c. Indonesia
Match the following: 115. compact state 116. elongated state 117. prorupted state 118. perforated state 119. fragmented state 120. landlocked state
a. Afghanistan b. Indonesia c. Nicaragua d. South Africa e. Vatican City f. Vietnam
Match the following (some states have more than one answer):
121. Brazil
122. China
123. Mesopotamia 124. Taiwan
a. was a hearth
b. was a colony
c. is a sovereign state d. has a forward capital
Match the following (some states have more than one answer):
125. unitary state 126. federal state 127. confederal state 128. devolution
a. Canada b. France
c. Germany d. Mexico e. Switzerland f. USA
Place the following colonial powers under the appropriate headings: Belgium, Britain, France, Germany, Italy, Netherlands, Portugal
129. Africa, 1850 130. Africa, 1900 131. Africa, 1950
Match the following:
132. model that demonstrates the transfer of resources from less developed to more developed areas
133. the fringe of a state
134. land beyond a border
135. the node of a state
136. an area the retains a distinction from a larger area 137. manipulating boundaries for political gain 138. an area rather than a line
Label each boundary physical or cultural and give an example
a. core-periphery
b. enclave
c. frontier
d. gerrymandering e. heartland
f. hinterland g. rimland
boundary
physical or cultural
example
139. mountain
140. language
141. religion
142. river
143. geometric
144. the Green Line
145. The European Union, the Arab League, and the United Nations are all examples of
a. pressure groups
b. nation-states
c. centrifugal organizations
d. supranational organizations
e. federations
146. Which of the following has fostered the most significant economic growth by eliminating import tariffs between member states?
a. European Union (EU)
b. Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
c. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
d. Association of Caribbean States (ACS)
e. United Nations (UN)
147. The provisions of the United Nations Conference on the Law of the Sea give coastal countries navigational and economic sovereignty over which of the following zones?
a. twelve-nautical-mile territorial sea zone and part of the Arctic Circle
b. export processing zone (EPZ)
c. 200-nautical-mile exclusive economic zone
d. empowerment zone
e. continental shelf
148. An increasing number of states have adopted a federal form of government primarily to
a. grant different ethnicities or nationalities more effective representation. b. encourage the breakup of the superpower alliances.
c. govern compact states more effectively.
d. deploy scarce resources efficiently.
e. meet all of the above needs.
Unit V: Agriculture and Rural Land Use
Match the following:
149. terracing, Mediterranean agriculture, pastoralism 150. terracing, shifting agriculture
151. arid climate, irrigation, little pork production, pastoralism
152. wheat, little pork production, pastoralism 153. factory farms, large pork production
154. wheat, Mediterranean agriculture
155. maize, irrigation
Choose the one that does not belong:
156. a. increases in the amount of land under cultivation b. increases in the agricultural workforce
c. increases in the use of energy and technology
a. Egypt b. Greece c. Italy
d. Peru e. Mexico f. Turkey g. USA
157. a. plantation farming
b. hunting and gathering
c. subsistence agriculture
158. a. efficient transportation
b. regionalized cuisine
c. corporately controlled farms
159. a. factory farms
b. genetic engineering
c. high food prices
d. Green Revolution
160. a. California
b. Mediterranean agriculture
c. “happy cows”
d. sharecropping
e. wheat
161. a. soy beans
b. coffee
c. wheat
d. corn
e. rice
162. a. beef
b. railroad
c. Milwaukee, 1900
163. a. hunting and gathering
b. It is limited to tropical areas
c. gender-based division of labor
d. Stage 1 of the demographic
transition
168. What is a milkshed and why is it important?
164. a. Great Plains Native
Americans—buffalo
b. Eskimos—snow
c. Hawiians—wigwams
d. Wisconsin settlers—log cabins e. Great Plains settlers—sod and thatch
165. a. shifting agriculture
b. tropical climate
c. global warming
d. depletion of soil
e. commercial agriculture
166. a. sustainable agriculture b. limited use of chemicals
c. integration of crops and livestock d. use of pesticide resistant seed e. organic farms
167. a. nomads
b. pastoralism
c. hunting and gathering
d. subsistence agriculture
e. shifting agriculture
f. terracing
169. Isolated farmsteads in the United States evolved as a result of all of the following EXCEPT
a. political stability.
b. colonization by individual pioneer families.
c. agricultural private enterprise.
d. government land policy.
e. physical barriers preventing communal farm practices.
170. Grain raised in the United States is used today primarily as
a. human food.
b. a source of fuel.
c. livestock feed.
d. an export to foreign countries.
e. raw material for various industries.
171. With respect to the relationship between culture, religion, and the physical environment
a. few religions derive meaningful events from the physical environment. b. religious ideas may be responsible for some of the changes people make in the physical environment.
c. religion is no longer an important source of identification for a distinct cultural group. d. all religions appeal primarily to people living in their land of origin.
e. All of the above are true.
172. A common difference(s) between farms in an LDC (like Pakistan) vs. farms in an MDC (like the United States) that grow the same crop is
a. the amount of crop produced in a year
b. the importance of the crop to the farmer
c. the income derived from crops
d. A and B
e. A and C
Unit VI: Industrialization and Economic Development
Label each of the following as bulk-reducing, bulk-gaining, footloose, or just-in-time:
173. soft-drink bottling 174. brewing
175. nickel smelting 176. baking
177. automobile assembly 178. autoparts manufacturing 179. electronics manufacturing 180. call centers
Label each of the following as primary, secondary, tertiary, or quaternary economic activity: 181. extract natural resources from the environment
182. transform raw materials into finished products
183. involve the collection, processing, and manipulation of information 184. involve the exchange of goods and the provision of services
185. involve the production of fresh produce for urban markets
Indicate the country or countries:
186. NAFTA
187. highest consumption of fossil fuels per capita 188. the Four Asian Tigers
189. maquiladoras
190. Atlantic-Pacific canal
Match the following:
191. high terminal cost, high line cost, high route flexibility 192. high terminal cost, low line cost, high route flexibility 193. high terminal cost, low line cost, low route flexibility 194. low terminal cost, high line cost, high route flexibility
a. airplane b. railroad c. ship d. truck
Label the five stages of Rostow’s model and briefly describe the characteristics:
195. Stage 1
196. Stage 2
197. Stage 3
198. Stage 4
199. Stage 5
Assume a Stage 5 country and indicate if each of the following would be high or low:
200. standard of living 201. CBR
202. CDR
203 NIR
204. life expectancy 205. literacy
206. GDP
207. GEM
Match the following:
210. banking, finance, insurance 211. deforestation
212. desertification
213. ecotourism
214. ozone depletion
215. smog
208. pollution
209. job in the informal sector
a. Brazil
b. chlorofluorocarbons
c. Mexico City
d. national parks
e. New York, London, and Tokyo f. Sahel
216. Which of the following arguments help explain why seventy-five percent of those employed in Export Processing Zones, such as maquiladoras, are women?
I. Women have better educational qualifications than men.
II. Women are paid less than men.
III. Many employers consider women to be more dexterous than men.
IV. Many employers consider women more likely to organize unions than men.
a. I and III only
b. II and III only
c. II and IV only
d. I, II, and III only
e. I, II, III, and IV
217. Which of the following has contributed most to the deindustrialization of regions like the English Midlands and the North American Manufacturing Belt?
a. the increased percentage of women in the labor force
b. competition from foreign imports
c. environmental legislation
d. the formation of free trade associations
e. the decline of labor unions
218. In recent decades, all of the following have played a major role in the rapid growth of Sun Belt cities of the United States EXCEPT
a. immigration from Latin America.
b. high levels of per capita federal spending in the South and West.
c. cheap land and labor.
d. climatic changes leading to colder northern winters.
e. the increasing demand for retirement and resort centers.
219. United Nations recognition of a state’s “exclusive economic zone” allows the state to
a. establish economic free trade zones within the sovereign territory of other states. b. claim national economic jurisdiction over 200 nautical miles of water extending from its coast.
c. limit importation of competitive goods and services from other countries. d. protect domestic production by imposing tariffs on all foreign-made products. e. form limited economic alliances with other countries.
220. Contemporary manufacturing is characterized by
a. production facilities that are generally located as close as possible to the sites of raw material production.
b. strong unions and localized involvement in all facets of the production process. c. spatial disaggregation of the production process.
d. reliance on highly skilled labor at all phases of the production process. e. production facilities located close to railroads.
Unit VII: Cities and Urban Land Use
Label each country with either the rank-size rule or the primate city rule:
221. Canada
222. France
223. Germany
Choose the one that does not belong:
227. a. megalopolis
b. core area
c. Boston to Washington, D.C.
d. Los Angeles to San Diego
228. a. Brookfield Square
b. edge city
c. gentrification
d. suburban sprawl
e. white flight
229. a. agglomeration
b. business park
c. decentralization
d. edge cities
230. a. blockbusting and racial steering b. redlining by financial institutions c. concentration of public housing d. fixed school district boundaries e. Economic Enterprise Zones
224. India
225. South Korea
226. United States
231. a. France
b. Mesopotamia
c. Mexico
d. North China
e. the Indus Valley
232. a. world cities
b. Chicago
c. Mumbai
d. Tokyo
233. a. 500 B.C.—defensive sites b. A.D. 1700—water power
c. A.D. 1800—railroad junctions d. pre-1950—navigable waterways e. post-1950--- highways
234. a. urban
b. Africa
c. Asia
d. South America
235. Place the following in order from least recent to most recent: “big box” superstore, downtown business district, shopping mall, Internet
Match the following:
236. export primarily to consumers outside the settlement
237. sell to people within the settlement 238. basic industries minus non-basic industries 239. related to talent
240. related to the level of services provided 241. center of Latin American cities
242. provided to people by government 243. downtown
244. the presence of which greatly diminishes the attractiveness of site farther away
245. illegal occupation of a residential district
a. basic industries
b. CBD
c. central plaza
d. economic base
e. human capital
f. intervening opportunities g. non-basic industries h. public housing
i. squatter settlement j. urban hierarchy
246. Which of the following environmental issues is of most immediate concern to policy-makers in New England?
a. overharvesting of breeding stock by commercial fishers
b. oil-spill liability
c. desertification by overgrazing of cattle
d. intensification of urban heat islands
e. generation of electric power by wind
247. Which of the following was NOT a reason for rapid suburbanization in the United States after the Second World War?
a. mass production of the automobile
b. reduction in long-distance commuting
c. expansion of home construction
d. expansion of the interstate highway system
e. availability of low down payment terms and long-term mortgages
248. According to the rank-size rule, if the largest city in a country has a population of 10 million, the next largest city will have a population of
a. 9 million.
b. 8 million.
c. 7.5 million.
d. 5 million.
e. 3.5 million.
249. Today, most of the United States and Canadian population lives in which of the following?
a. farming areas
b. rural non-farming areas
c. central cities
d. metropolitan areas
e. small towns
250. Public transit is more extensive in Western European cities than in the United States primarily because
a. Europeans cannot afford cars.
b. European governments subsidize public transit.
c. density is lower.
d. the central city contains fewer high-rises.
e. suburbs are built at subway terminals.
251. The attraction of the call center industry to locate in India can best be explained by
a. low wages and wide use of English.
b. low wages and geographic situational factors.
c. wide use of English and the large number of working students.
d. Indian students' ability to work at night and geographic situational factors. e. none of the above.
252. Historically, the growth of North American suburbs was most constrained by
a. high land values.
b. zoning ordinances.
c. limited transportation.
d. housing shortages.
e. cultural preferences.
253. In Latin America, data for employment in many large urban areas are most likely to be incomplete because
a. employment is growing too rapidly.
b. most people are unemployed.
c. people change jobs regularly.
d. records are kept mainly for male workers.
e. many people work in the informal sector.
254. Spreading parts production and fabrication among many countries or communities
a. increases proximity to markets.
b. increases large corporations bargaining power with local governments and labor. c. decreases the unequal distribution of industry.
d. leaves unmet consumer demand.
e. reduces transportation distances.
Models You Need to Know
Label each of the following models and explain how each can be useful to geographers. 255. 256.
257. 258.
259.
260.