Welcome to the PRINCE2 Mock Foundation examination. Hopefully by now you've already attempted one of the mock exams and you're here to check the rationale for why the answer is what the answer is. Over the course of the next 60 questions, we're going to go through each question and we're going to examine the questions in full and why the answer is what the answer is. Hopefully this will enhance your knowledge and give you the necessary confidence to go and take the real exam.
Let's start with the exam information. Don't forget that for PRINCE2 Foundation it is a closed book exam which means that you won't have any aid to take with you for the duration of the exam. The exam is going to last 60 minutes and there are 60 questions in total so roughly there are 1 minute per question. It is my sincere advice that you should not spend 5 minutes answering one question as that would impact your ability to complete the whole exam effectively.
You also need to get 60% of the questions correct. percent to pass it which is 36 out of 60 for that particular examination. This is a multiple choice question so the format is always going to be one question, four possible answer and there are only one answer. Remember there are no trick question.
So go through a question thoroughly, read the possible answers and then pick the right answer. If you have any difficulties move on to the next question. Remember you do not want to waste time as you go through the process. Sixty minutes goes very fast.
So we're going through the sample paper 1 and let's look at what the question is. Question 1 Which statement describes the project context? A. It should be understood by the stakeholders so that the principles are applied appropriately. B.
It explains how each aspect of the project management should be applied for the process to be effective. C. It's It guides the progression of the pre-project activities through the stage of the project life cycle.
D It ensures an understanding of the need of the stakeholders and the relationship between them. This is a question about project context. When we look at the five elements of Prince 2, we know there are principles, processes, people, practices, and project context.
The project context is a... understanding the environment in which your project is going to be operating. In this case, you need to be able to understand how you're going to apply the principle in that environment.
So, A is our right answer. It should be understood by the stakeholders so that the principles are applied appropriately. You need to understand the environment in which your project is going to be deployed so that you can apply the appropriate principles to it. So, A is our right answer.
Question 2. Which is the characteristics of a project that distinguishes it from business as usual? If you look back, you will see that earlier in our foundation paper, we talk about the key characteristics. characteristics of a project, which includes things like unique, bridge changes, and so on.
Let's look at our possible answers here. A says a project continues after business as usual resumes. Is this the case?
We know that a project should end once the product is being delivered. so A is not a right answer. B says the project include ongoing management of the operation. This is not the case because once the project is delivered you have the benefit management approach which will go with the organization to ensure that the project is delivered.
ensure that everything is going as expected but the project has already closed. C says every project will be different to the previous one. One of the key aspects of a project is the fact that they are unique.
They are different from what we do on a day to day basis. So C will be our answer. Just to complete the pack, D says project work is generally less risky than business as usual.
This is not the case. We know that because projects are unique we haven't actually set up a lot of processes and we don't actually know what's going to happen. So projects are always more risky than business as usual which we've been doing for years and we have a lot of process already in place. Question 3. The project board has decided that the project should close prematurely as the external environment has changed.
Which principle here is being applied? A says learn from experience. Learn from experience principle is about making sure we learn from previous experience and the lessons that we are adding at the moment as we go through the project.
While undoubtedly we will have some lessons, this is not the real deal. why the project board has decided to close the project. B says, tailor to suit.
Tailor to suit is about making sure we choose the appropriate level of Prince 2 for our project. So, this is about tailoring. Making sure we don't overburden our project with excessive documentation that does not add value. This is not the reason why the board has decided to prematurely close the project.
C says manage by exception. The purpose of manage by exception is to allow the board to give the project manager some tolerances and leeway to manage the project without interference. However, the minute the interference happens, then they need to basically step in. This might have triggered something. However, this is not the reason why they have decided to close the project because an exception doesn't necessarily mean the end of a project.
An exception just means you need to write an exception report and the board may choose to grant a concession. But one thing an exception can do is to prompt the review of the business case and if the business case is no longer justified then the project manager, the project board, will close the project. In this case, this is a short continued business justification.
justification. Clearly, because the environment has changed so drastically, the project board has decided that there is no further justification to continue the project. So, therefore, our answer will be D, ensure continued business justification.
Question number four. Which statement about defined roles, responsibilities and relationship principles is correct? A says the project management team consists exclusively of internal stakeholders. This is incorrect. Because Bridge 2 operates in a customer supply environment, and a stakeholder can be internal or external.
We know that our definition of stakeholder says that anyone that can be affected by the project is a stakeholder, anyone that can be affected by the project's product is a stakeholder, and anyone who can affect the project is a stakeholder. So, Prince 2 does include internal and external stakeholders. So, A is not correct. B says an organization day-to-day management structures are likely to be suited to the control of the project work. We already know that the definition of Prince 2 starts with a project is a temporary organization that is created for the purpose of delivering one or more business products according to an agreed business case.
If the organization is itself was suitable, we would not need to create a temporary organization in itself. So, therefore, this does not quite go with the idea of defined roles and responsibilities. C says the project board should exclude external suppliers representative. The project board is made up of three interests. The business interest, the user interest, and the supplier interest.
If the supplier interest were to have been removed from the whole process, then the board would be incomplete because we do need that supplier interest to be able to understand certain things such as the right approach, method, and technical viability. D says suppliers are stakeholders that can be external to the business. Yes, when it comes to the principle defined roles, responsibility, relationship, and we're talking about suppliers, yes, they can be external to the business. So D will be our correct answer for this one. Question number five.
Which principle is being applied when setting limits for the seven aspects of performance to enable project manager to work effectively? A says manage by exception. B says learn from experience.
D says tailor to suit the project. And D says define roles, responsibility, and build relationship. First of all, when we talk about which principles is being applied when we say tolerances, the purpose of management by exception is to allow the project manager to be able to operate freely while the project board still retains some sort of control.
So the project board is allowed to operate as long as it doesn't breach any of the tolerances. So the tolerances are set to prevent an exception case. So, as long as you do not bridge this, I will not interfere.
But the minute you bridge this, I will have to interfere. So, when we're talking about tolerances, it has to be managed by exception. The board will take over the management when you break one of the tolerances, when an exception event occurs.
So, the answer for five will be managed by exception. Question number six. What does the ensure continued business justification principle facilitate? It says the project has a business stakeholders to ensure that investment continues to be justified.
He says the project remains desirable, viable, achievable as the project progresses. Now, A already seems quite close because when we say continued business justification principle, the business stakeholders ensure that the investment continues to be justified. But that's not the full answer.
B says the project remains desirable, viable and achievable. One of the key aspects that the business needs to face is as we review the business case, we need to ask ourselves three key questions in order to determine that the project is continues to be justified. The first one is, is it still desirable? That is, does it still fit within our organization's program?
Does it still add the kind of value? Would it still operate in this environment? Do I still want it? We also need to ask ourselves if it's still viable?
As in, is the benefit and everything I want from it still there? And finally, is it still achievable? Can I still do it within the constraints that I know exists? All the three questions must be yes.
If at any point any of those questions is no, then the answer is stop the project. So, the Ensure Continued Business Justification principle facilitates that a project must remain desirable, viable and achievable for the progress to continue. So, our answer will be B. Question 7. Which statement describes how the principle supports effective... project management.
We have a couple of options here. Let's have a look at it from D It says they should be applied the same way across project within an organization. No. Different projects will allow you to tailor so you should always think of the principle as basically your mindset. However, you also need to take into account the project environment that you're in and because each project is unique even if they are within the same organization you should treat it as such.
They rely on common vocabulary that should be applied as defined in PRINCE2. Yes, this is more of a statement. It doesn't really help support effective project management.
There is a common vocabulary in PRINCE2, but they can be tailored. You just need to understand how, what project executive means in another organization. B says they take into account industry-specific models as PRINCE2 is generic.
They do not take into account industry-specific model. The PRINCE2 are supposed to be the general guidelines that we kind of follow. And A says they allow project team to decide how the method should be applied on the project. Basically, once you have the principles at the back of your mind, that influences everything else that you do.
What level of tailoring is necessary, how to implement the practice, how to understand the project context, how to understand the people's role in it. Yes, they allow the project team to decide how the method should be applied on the project. So A is your correct answer. Question number eight.
Which statement describes leadership on a project? A says it is best done through collaboration across the project ecosystem. B.
It is a set of shared attitude, values and goal for the project. C. It is a control that takes place when specific event or cause.
And D It is instructing the execution of task in time with agreed ways of working. For this question, it is important to be able to define each aspect. D says it is instructing the execution of tasks in line with their agreed ways of working. That is management.
C says it is a control that takes place when a specific event or call. That's what we call our event-driven controls. And B says it is a set of shared attitude, values and goals for the project.
And that is... project culture? A says it is best done through collaboration across the project ecosystem and that is leadership.
So our answer is A. Question number nine. Which is a definition of co-creation?
A says working with key influencers to ensure their great ways of working are adopted by all areas of the project. ecosystem. B says modifying any of the approved management products that are part of the project baseline. C says ensuring decision made at a stage boundary are informed by continued business justification.
And D says applying management controls whenever a specific event takes place. To answer this, we need to be able to define what co-creation is. And co-creation is a specific type of collaboration where the influential stakeholders are quite involved in the creation of the product itself in order to embed it and to improve its acceptance.
So A says, working with key influencers to ensure that agreed ways of working are adopted by all areas of the project ecosystem. This is co-creation. We want to make the product of the project their baby.
We want them to see themselves in it. We want them to have a clear input into it. We want them to be involved in it. So, co-creation is A. Which is not an aspect of leadership?
You might get questions like this and you need to focus on not. So, we're looking for the one that is not an aspect of leadership, which means that three of them... Or three of the answer could be an aspect of leadership.
A says instructing the execution of tasks in line with agreed ways of working. B says motivating people to achieve a project objective. C, persuading and influencing and co-creating with stakeholders. And D, seeking regular feedback to remain aligned with a project's objectives. Seeking regular feedback is part of leadership.
Persuading people is part of leadership. Motivating people is part of leadership. Instructing the execution of tasks in line with agreed ways of working is not leadership, it is management. So A is our right answer. Question 11. Which activity should be managed carefully as part of leading?
across the organizational boundaries because it is likely to be performed by people outside of the project team. So, A securing funding from the business layer for the business case. B integrating new product into each impacted area of the business. C gaining commitment for the realization of the benefit post project. delivering the product to their great quality specification.
We're looking at basically things that will be done by people outside of the project team. So which activity should be managed carefully as part of the leading across the organizational boundaries because it is likely to be performed by people outside of the project team. If we look at A for example, securing funding from business layer for the business case. Your executive should be securing funding for you. When it comes to gaining commitment for the realization of benefit post project, we expect the senior user to be showing commitment to that.
And when it comes to delivering the product to their agreed quality specification, we expect our team manager to be delivering those work packages. That leaves us with B, integrating new products into each impacted area of the business. So this is where people within the organization cell is going to be having a direct impact on what you're creating. They need to use it. They need to get those benefits.
So B is your right answer. Question number 12. Why is change management important in a project? A. Because stakeholders should understand which organization areas are impacted by the project.
B. The project product should be described and subject to change control. And C. Because confidence is needed that the project can meet its scope, objective, and continue to be justified.
And D Because user quality expectation of the project product should be understood When we're talking about change management, what is the purpose of the change management itself? The purpose of the change management is to help the organization understand at present where they are and what the target state, the future state, is going to be, what they're aiming for. And to help them navigate how they're going to get there, that's the purpose of the change management.
When it comes to changing baseline, we have to deal with issues for that, so an issue management approach for B. So when it comes to having confidence in terms of continuing business justification, we're looking at the business case. And when it comes to the user quality expectation being understood, we're looking at your project product description. So, A says because stakeholders should understand which organization areas are going to be impacted by the project and project and change management helps them understand that because change management helps them understand where the organization currently is, what the organization is trying to achieve and how they're going to get there.
By stating clearly what the organization is trying to achieve they can see how they're going to be impacted by this project. So, A is our correct answer. Question 13. Which statement about capabilities and competencies within a project is correct?
Team should consist of members with similar capabilities and competencies. This is not correct. A team is made up of cross-functional members. So people with different abilities and different skill sets at different levels are welcome because we're doing multiple things within the project. So A is incorrect.
B says team members are likely to perform differently depending on the structure of the team. This is correct. When it comes to capabilities and competencies, we know that team members are likely to perform differently depending on what structure of the team is. So, the answer is B.
Question number 14. What is a description of a purpose of change management approach? A. To describe how the proposal to change the project baseline should be recorded and approved. That is not the right answer. That is the purpose of the issue management approach, not the change management approach.
B. To describe the standard required to deliver the product that meets the user's expectation. You're talking there about quality management approach, not the change management approach.
C says to define how the business will need to operate in the future to meet the project's objectives. Yes, the change management approach allows us to understand the current state, the future state, and how we're going to need to behave to get there. So C is our correct answer.
And just to complete the set, D says to describe the process and procedures required to manage uncertainty. That's the purpose of your risk management approach. Question 15. A project holds a workshop to share experience of new ways of working between the project team members.
Which principle is being applied by the people elements? 1. Learn from experience. 2. Be managed by exception. 3. Seek defined roles and responsibilities of relationship.
4. Focus on product. 15 says a project holds a workshop to share experience. of new ways of working between the project team members.
We know that when we start a project that we're going to open our lessons log. And the first thing we're going to try to capture is previous lessons, lessons from similar projects. But as the project progresses, We're going to start capturing new lessons within that project.
And that activity links back to learn from experience. So, what they're doing here is they're learning from experience. So, A is your right answer. Question 16. Which management product should the project board approve to commit to the project scope and time scale? A says the project mandate.
B. the benefit management approach, C the project initiation document and D the business case. Let's explore each one.
The project mandate is issued from the pre-project to the executive and the project mandate triggers start-up. In starting a project process, you haven't even decided that the project is worthwhile yet. So how can the board commit to the entirety of the project? Not possible.
In fact, in starting up a project process, even the project board hasn't yet been formed because the project board will only be formed at the end of starting up a project process when we request to initiate a project. B says benefit management approach. The purpose of benefit management approach is basically to state how we're going to capture the benefit of the project when the product goes live. What we need to capture it, how we're going to do it, what benefits should accrue, at what interval and so on.
So that doesn't actually commit us to a project scope and time scale. When we look at the business case, the business case is just telling us the justification for doing this. When it comes to Commitments to the project scope and timescale.
The contract that exists between the project manager and the project board is the project initiation document. And within the project initiation document is where you find everything you need to commit to the project scope and time scale, which includes your project plan, your business case, and all the other documents to make things work. So the right answer is the project initiation document, because that's where you see your time scale as well as your project scope. Everything goes in that, and that's what the project board are committing to.
So the answer is C. Question 17. What is the purpose of the business case practice? A.
To enable the project executive to decide whether to continue with the project or not. B. To identify the user's quality expectation to meet the business case.
C. To prevent the planned outcome from causing disbenefit to the business case. And D To define the product. and how they will be delivered to satisfy the business case. When we look at all of this, we're talking about the business case practice.
And the business case practice is about justification. Within the business case itself, we have several elements such as the reason, the option, the benefits, the disbenefits, the major risk, the timescale, the cost, the investment appraisal. And what is allowed the executive to do is to decide whether or not to continue the project by using the document to decide whether the project is still viable, achievable, and desirable.
So the answer will be A. When B says to identify the user. quality expectation to meet the business needs.
Well, the user quality expectation you'll find in your project product description. C says to prevent the planned outcome from causing disbenefit to the business. Well, that's more about you dealing with the issues and all the things that's going to happen. So, your right answer is still A.
Question 18. Which should be used to justify whether the project should be progressed? A. Project brief and benefit management approach B. Highline report and the benefit management approach C.
Business case and the highlight report D Project brief and business case When dealing with this, it is important to just reference your mind back to your process diagrams. A says project brief and the benefit management approach. There is no way that those two documents will ever meet each other. Project brief is a startup and ends its life in initiation. The benefit management approach is created when you develop your outline business case into a refined business case.
So the two will never be together for the project board to decide they're going to use it to move forward. When it comes to B, Highline Report and Benefit Management Approach. The Benefit Management Approach simply just tells you how you're going to measure the benefits when the project goes live and the Highline Report just reports how the project is going so far. It's a correlation of this is where we go, this is where we are and is intended to inform the board of things.
So the two dozen make sense for us to use it as a means of progressing to the next stage. The third one is using the business case and the highlight report. The two of them are insufficient. But when we look at D, it says the project brief and business case.
Within the project brief itself, we have quite a lot of things such as our project product description, our project definition, our project management team structure, our business case and so on. So using all the information. in there, the board are able to make a sufficient decision to decide whether or not to proceed into the initiation stage.
So it will be D A project brief consists of all the information the board needs to make a decision whether or not to authorize initiation. So D is your right answer. Question 19. Identify the missing word in the following sentence. A business objective is the measurable outcome that demonstrate progress in relation to and to which the project should contribute. A says organization strategy.
B says output desired by the business. C says benefit desired by the business. And D says business justification. Let's see which one fits. Identify the missing word in the following sentence.
A business objective is a measurable outcome that demonstrates progress in relation to, dash, and to which the project should contribute. The business objectives contribute to the organization's strategy. So, A will be our right answer.
The idea is, the business objectives we'll achieve will allow the organization's strategy. to be followed on. So, A is our right answer. Question 20. A government department has a target to reduce its carbon footprint by 8 to 12%. How should these requirements be captured?
When we first of all look at this question as it is, we know that this is to do with the environment. And whenever we're talking about environment, we're talking about sustainability management approach. And when we're talking about this as a tolerance, we're talking about the sustainability tolerance.
So, let's look at our possible option. It should be recorded. as a benefit tolerance.
This is not a benefit. As a sustainability tolerance, this is a sustainability target because this is an environmental target. So it will therefore be B.
It is not an out... because it is already measured and it is not is more than just a quality tolerance because this is not a quality tolerance this is about the environment quality tolerance is to give you that perhaps let's say for example you need to produce it a pen for me that is 10 centimeter long but it can be plus one of we can be plus or minus one centimeter but this is to deal with sustainability and this is to do with the seven targets by the u.s. so 8 to 12 percent piece your right answer. Question 21. During this stage, the project manager recorded a new risk on the risk register.
In which step of the business case management technique should the impact on the business case be assessed? During this stage, the project manager recorded a new risk on the risk register. And we're asking ourselves that in which step of the business case management technique should the impact of the business case be?
case be assessed. If you remember and you look back to your understanding of the business case management technique, you know that develop is where we do it between startup and initiating a project process. When we're going from outline to development, we're going from to the detailed business case. But we also know that within a stage, as we add new risks and issues, we need to check that our business case is still in line and can still be delivered. So within a stage, we always check the business case any time we record new risks that could affect it or new issues as happened.
Then, at the end of the stage, we need to maintain our business case where we summarize everything. everything that's happened thus far and then we leave it to the board to confirm that those benefits that we see are still there. So if we're talking within stage we know this is going to be check the business case. So our answer is going to be B.
Remember develop during startup and initiation. Within stage we check anytime we record new risk or issues that could affect things. Then we maintain the business case at the end of the stage and then we confirm benefits.
at that point as well to make sure that everything is still good and we can continue to the next stage. Question 22. The project manager has received the feedback from the stakeholders identifying the need to change the project team structure. Which principle is being applied by the organiser in practice when actioning this feedback? We've got learn from experience, define roles and responsibilities and relationships, manage by stages, tailor to suit. We know this is not defined roles and responsibilities because we know that they already have that.
They have their role but they are asking that the structure should be changed. The project management team structure should be changed and this is based on their feedback. If we are taking a feedback based on what has happened, we are using learning from experience.
The project manager has received feedback from stakeholders adding finding need to change the project team structure. It's not working. We've seen it in action. So this is learn from experience.
This is not managed by stages because, of course, managed by stages is a question of each stage must be justified and the output must be produced before we can move to the next one. So on this occasion, we're going to say learn from experience. Question 23. Which management product should specify individual accountability for sustainability targets?
So, we're looking here at the individual accountability. And if we say what document will allow me to know precisely what I, within the project, need to do? It is not a business case. It is not a product description because the business case only reveals how to make sure that the project is viable, desirable and achievable. The product description allows us to know precisely what we need to produce at the end for the product to be accepted.
The project management team structure allows you to understand the relationship that exists between different roles. But the role description is what details the accountability of each individual. You are the one who decides.
You are the project manager. You are going to write the highlight report. You are going to do this. You are going to do that. So therefore it is role description.
A is your correct answer. Question 24. What is defined as having authority to direct a project within the remit set by the business? We know in PRINCE2 that there are four levels of management. We have the business at the top and the business will set project tolerances to the project board who are in delivery and we know the project board will then set their own tolerance to the project manager who is in managing and that the project manager will set his tolerance to the team manager who is in delivery. So if the question is saying that who needs to operate within the remit set by by the business, it is the project board because the project board is the only interface with the business.
So, therefore, our answer will be project board. Question 25. How should senior user fulfill their responsibility for continued realization of benefit post-project? A. By representing the work needed in the hierarchy to help organize the project.
Question 26. b. By ensuring commitment from people in the user community to adopting the new product. c. By defining how to assure the continued justification of the project. And d.
By ensuring that the technical integrity of the project's product deliver to the user. How should senior user fulfill their responsibility for continual realization of benefit post project? So we're looking at the benefit post project. After the project is finished, is going to go into a live environment and the senior user needs to make sure the benefits are captured. The way they're going to do this is by ensuring there's commitment from the users to adopt the new product so that they can use it and get the outcome they want and we can capture those benefits.
So the answer for us will be B. D says by ensuring technical integrity of the project product delivered to the user. The person who ensures technical integrity is our senior supplier. B says by defining how to ensure the continuing business justification of the project.
Well, if we're talking about post-project, well, we don't need to, the project is already finished, so we don't need to worry about this. So, our answer is B. Question 26. A new team member has joined the project team and will be going on site to visit. In which step of the organizational design and development technique should this occur? A.
Develop the project ecosystem. B. Understand the organizational ecosystem.
C. Design the project ecosystem. And D Manage the ongoing change to the project ecosystem. What we are talking about here is the organization design and development technique and if we cannot try to go through it the first step is to understand the organization ecosystem try to understand how the organization functions then you need to design the project ecosystem which is what roles do I need who needs to be part of it what's the structure going to be Once you have designed the project ecosystem, then you need to develop the project ecosystem.
It is in the project ecosystem that we embed people. So if a new team member has just joined the project team and will be going on a site visit, we are trying to embed that member in there. So therefore, our answer will be develop the project ecosystem.
Question 27. What is the purpose of the planned practice? A says to enable the project manager to control the project by defining who will deliver the project's products and when to deliver them. B says to enable the project executive to monitor whether the project is desirable, viable, achievable and should continue.
C. To allow the project executive to define which role in the project management team is responsible for producing the plan. D To allow the project manager to plan how to respond to uncertainties who should action the agreed response.
If we look at the purpose of the plan itself, we know first of all it's not deep. To allow the project manager to plan how to respond to uncertainty, we're talking about risk there. One way to look at to allow the project executive to define which role in the project management team is responsible for, we're talking about organization there. B says to enable the project executive to monitor whether the project is desirable, achievable, and viable.
We're talking about business case. And A says to enable the project manager to control the project by defining who will deliver it and when to deliver it. All of this is what we cover when we...
we're doing our product-based planning technique and we're defining analyzing products, organizing work packages and so on. So, A is our answer. Question 28. The business strategy has changed, requiring the scope of the project to be increased beyond the tolerances that has been agreed by the business layer. Which plan should be produced to include this change?
We have A. Project Plan B. Stage Plan C. Team Plan D Exception Plan The key word in this question is the word tolerance. So something has happened that has gone beyond the tolerance.
Anytime we break a tolerance and we need to produce a plan to fix it, it has to be an exception plan. So it will have to be D because of the breach in tolerance. Question 29. I define the missing word in the following sentence. When planning, there are at least two types of dash relevant to the project, internal and external. When planning, we know there are two types of dependencies.
Internal dependencies and external dependencies. Internal dependencies are things that we are creating within our project and we will use. External dependencies are things we are not creating within our project, but we need within our project.
So we are taking it from the external, from the outside. The answer here is dependencies. Question 30. How should a project plan typically accommodate an iterative incremental project? He says by having multiple delivery stages that allow acceptance criteria to be refined as the product are delivered. Without going further, when we talk about iterative incremental project or iterative development, this is a common technique in Agile and it consists of us having a conversation, then we'll think about how we're going to deliver the product.
and then we'll action and deliver the product, then we'll have a conversation again to refine that acceptance criteria. So, A says by having multiple delivery stages that allow acceptance criteria to be refined as the product are delivered. So, A is a right answer, but let's look at some of the other options. B says by ensuring products... are complete before the project is approved by the project board.
C says, breaking down the work of a stage to the level of detail required for day-to-day control by the project manager. A. Again, nothing to do with iterative development.
And B says, by dividing the project into two stages to enable iterative development of producing during this project. That has nothing to do with iterative development. The two stages idea is that within two stages, basically, you can have all the same processes. So our right answer is by having multiple delivery stages that allow acceptance criteria to be refined as the products are produced. The key word there is to be refined.
Right? Because the whole idea of iterative development is we want to continue to refine things to see if we can get it to be better. So, A is our answer.
Question 31. The project manager needs to capture the user quality expectation. In which step of the planning technique should the expectation be captured? Now, when we look at the planning technique itself, we have things such as define and analyze a product, organize a work package, prepare estimate, and prepare a schedule. The first question we need to ask ourselves here is, if we're talking about user quality expectation, in what document would we find that?
And the document that we'll find that in is the user quality expectation is part of your project. product description. So when we are talking about things such as the planning technique, where would we see the project product description?
We will see the project product description in defining and analyzing a product. If you're going to define and analyze the product, you need a few things. And the first thing you need is project product description.
Within that project product description, you have your user quality expectation. Following from that, you're going to have your product breakdown structure. Then you're going to have your product description and then you're going to have your product flow diagram.
So if the project manager needs to capture the user quality expectation, he will have to do that while defining and analyzing the product. So, the answer is A. What is the purpose of the qualitative practice? A says to enable control by defining how the project will deliver the product to satisfy the business case. This is not correct.
That's not the purpose of the quality practice. The business case is separate. B says to document the business case. the user requirements and ensure they remain unchanged throughout the project. Well, we might have changes.
PRINCE is not immune to change. We just want to make sure that the change is controlled. So, wrong answer. Not to do with quality anyway. C says to explain how the project will ensure the user requirements of the project produced are met.
This is the purpose of the quality practice. And D says to agree to deliver the product that were not part of the project's business justification. You do not want to do that. That's just the wrong thing to do. So C is correct.
Question 33. The team manager needs to record that a product needs to be tested but has not yet been approved. Where should the information be recorded? A. Quality register. B.
Quality specification. C. Product register. D Project product description.
The key to this question is to be able to define these terms. The project product description is the final output that we will have. This is what we are trying to create throughout the entire project. The product register tells us what has been accepted.
The quality specification is like the acceptance of the product. criteria for each of the products in the product description. The quality register is where we record everything relating to the testing and acceptance of the product.
So if the team manager needs to record that the thing has been tested but not yet been approved, it will be in the quality register. Once it has been approved and collected, it will go into the product register. So the right answer here is the quality register. Question 34. Which statement describes project assurance rather than quality assurance? A says it is independent of the project manager but not the project.
B says it monitors the project's quality controls measures used to assess the project's product. C says it is independent of the project team and may be part of the user's quality management system. And D says it describes the documented expectation for the project's product.
What we're trying to define here is which domain describes project assurance rather than quality assurance. Project assurance is part of our project management structure. We are responsible to the project board.
But quality assurance is external to our project. They are not responsible to the project board, but they can be part of the business itself and they can check the quality that we have within our project. So the most suitable answer is A.
It is independent of the project manager, but not the project because project assurance is responsible to the project board. So our right answer is A. Question 35. A new requirement is identified when producing a subordinated plan.
How should this be managed? So, a new requirement is identified when producing a subordinated plan. A says, by preparing new product description. b by using issue management approach, c by updating the project product description, and d by updating the quality management approach. So here we already have a plan.
Let's say a stage plan. However, when the team manager was creating his own team plan, he realized that there are some new requirements that wasn't part of the initial stage plan. This is some This is an issue and to deal with it we need to use the issue management approach.
Because of any issue that happens like this, we're going to use our issue management procedure. Capture the issue, assess it, make a recommendation, and then we'll go ahead and do it. let a decision be made and then it is implemented.
So therefore, this will be by using the issue management procedure. Question 36. A system has been tested and the user needs to take ownership of the system. In which step of the quality management technique should this occur?
A. Gathering user input. B.
Assessing product. D Describing the quality management approach. And D Controlling quality. When we have a look at this particular question, it says the system has been tested and the user needs to take ownership of the system.
So, at this point in time, we've gone through our quality review team. They've reviewed it. The producers explained everything and the approver has accepted it. So, what we are going to do now is we're going to accept the product.
If we look at all the possible answers such as A, gathering user input, that's before we get to this point. Describing the cost management approach, that's basically part of our quality planning to make sure that we're going to know how we're going to manage that quality. Controlling the quality, that is before we take ownership. So at this point, we're in B, we're accepting the product. We're taking ownership of the system.
So B is our correct answer. Question 37. What is the purpose of the risk practice? A says to address concerns about the standards that are to be applied to the product. B says to identify the likelihood of a threat occurring and its possible impact on the project. C says to guarantee delivery of the agreed scope on time to cost and quality.
And D says... to ensure that the problem are resolved before they have a chance to have negative impact on the project. Risk is about dealing with uncertainty. So if we look at which is the one that deals with uncertainty, it says to identify the likelihood of a threat occurring.
and its possible impact on the project. When we are trying to describe what a risk is, we try to identify what is the cause of the risk, what is likely to happen as a result of it, and what is the impact. We have our cause, event, effect. As a result of the excessive rain, the river may overflow, and my house may get flooded.
So we always try to look at all those things. The risk practice also allows us to assess the risk. where we start looking at things like probability, impact and proximity, all the way to planning for it and then implementing those plans. So the right answer here will be B because it allows us to identify the likelihood of a threat occurring and its possible impact on the project. Question 38. Which provides the project management team with guidance on how to record threats?
A says risk management approach, B says risk register, C says digital and data management approach, and D says work package description. When we look at this, we're talking about a project management team. First of all, the work package description is to deal with how the work package needs to be dealt with and the team manager will know how it records its own risk, how it escalates it. Data and digital and data management approach has nothing to do with the question.
Now we're left with the risk register and the risk management approach. The risk register is where we record the risk. However, the risk management approach is what gives us the inclination of how we're going to do it. So, it details how we're going to capture risk, how we're going to assess the risk, how we're going to plan for the risk, how we're going to record the risk. So, if we're looking for guidance on how to record the threats, basically we'll look at our risk management approach because that's where those information are detailed.
So, the answer will be A. Question 39. Which term describes who is responsible for responding to a risk satisfactorily? Who is responsible for responding to a risk satisfactorily? We have the risk owner, risk actione, project support, and project assurance. When it comes to responding to a risk in the implement phase, we have two roles which are critical to this.
We have the risk owner and the risk action owner. The risk action owner is the one who does the work, but the risk action owner is the one who does the work. risk owner is the one who retains accountability for the work.
If the work is not done correctly, the risk owner is the one who is accountable for it. The risk action owner simply needs to do the work. So, in this case, it says which term describes who's responsible for responding to the risk satisfactorily, it will have to be this risk owner because the risk owner is the one who's accountable for making sure that the risk is dealt with appropriately. So our answer will be A.
How does loss aversion result in less effective decision-making when considering a risk? A says by valuing the need to keep what you have rather than to get something new. B says by discounting downside risk, believing that things will go according to plan. C says by valuing team unity rather than reaching the right decision. And D says view risks that are more likely to occur as riskier.
The first thing to consider when dealing with this question is what is loss aversion? Loss aversion is the fear that if I invest something, I might lose it. So I would rather keep what I have than the hope of gaining something else.
That's the loss aversion. aversion. Which one better represent this definition? A says by valuing the need to keep what you have rather than get something new. So A is a right answer because that is exactly the definition of what loss aversion is.
Question 41. The project manager needs to understand the project environment and define how to manage the risk on the project. In which step of the risk management technique should this be defined? We have identify, assess, plan and implement. When we're trying to understand the project environment, the thing we need to do is to identify the risk itself and to do so we need to identify three things. Once we identify those three things, we'll be able to manage the risk effectively.
What is the trigger? What is likely to happen and how can it affect my project? That's the cause-event-effect.
And you do this when you identify the risk. So the step in which he's going to do this is identify. Question 42. How does the issue practice contribute to a successful project? A says by defining events that might positively impact the project objective. B says by controlling modification to the current approved version of the management product.
C says by adjusting the level of approval required according to the user's expectation. And D says by making uncertain situation certain by addressing its cause. Let's look at a question again. How does the ESU practice contribute to a successful project?
If we look at D, by making the uncertain situation certain by addressing its cause, we're looking at risk there. And we can make an uncertain situation certain by addressing its cause simply by avoiding the risk. So, this is risk nothing to do with issue.
Remember, issue is about things that happen, things that are certain, and it's about controlling baseline. C says by adjusting the level of approval required according to the user's expectations. With C, if you're doing this, this is about change authority.
So this is not necessarily to do with the issue practice. And B says by controlling the modification to the current approved version of the management product. The idea behind the issue practice is to make sure that there is change, however that change is managed correctly. We don't want a situation whereby you have a product that is changing through different versions but without a way to control it.
We don't want to start with I want a Ferrari and end up with a Beetle. So, issue practice contributes to a successful project by controlling the modification to the current approval version of the managed product. So, your answer is B. Number 43. Project support needs to understand how to make changes to approve version of the project's product.
Which management product should project support review? A says issue management approach. B says risk management approach.
C says benefit management approach. And D says quality management approach. Let's look at the question again.
Project support needs to understand how to make changes to the approved version of the project product. So, how to change baseline. We know if there's anything to do with baseline, it's about issue.
So, issue management approach is where we're going to look for how to do this. Quality management approach is only going to tell us how to make sure something is fit for purpose, and how we're going to test it. Benefit management approach will tell us how we're going to gather the...
benefits once we go live. Risk management approach will tell us how to deal with uncertainty but issue management approach will tell us how to make sure that the product, the baseline is changed in the right way. So A is our correct answer.
Question 44 What is the definition of an issue? A says an event relevant to the project that requires the project management consideration. B says an uncertain event that should it occur will have an effect on the project.
C says a description of the impact an uncertain event would have on the objective. And he says, a measurable threshold to represent the tolerable range of outcome for each impacted objector. So, let's define each one of those things. D says a measurable threshold to represent the tolerable range of outcome for each impacted objective.
That's just tolerance. C says a description of... impact an uncertain event would have on the objective.
This is us trying to describe the risk. B says an uncertain event that should it occur will have an effect on the project. That's just risk itself. And A says an event relevant to the project that requires a project management consideration that is an issue.
The difference between issues and risk is risk is uncertain whereby issue is certain. 45. A change has been approved and needs to be implemented. Which part of the guidance for effective issue management should enable the change to be implemented? A says a delegation of authority by the project board to decide on change to the appropriate level. B says the application of the change budget within the authorized constraint to make the trade-off.
C says the audit of whether the actual product status reflect the status recorded in the product register. And D says the definition of an appropriate level at which the product needs to be baseline. At this point, we should look back at our issue management technique. The issue management technique consists of capture, assess, recommend, decide and implement.
He said a change has been approved so they've already approved it so they've decided and needs to be implemented. So we're now at the implement phase. Which part of the guidance for effective issue management should enable the change to be implemented?
So the person who is going to implement the change is going to need the application of the change budget within the authorized constraint to make a trade-off. In order to implement what has been approved, we will need the money to do it. The change budget is set up to basically deal with requests for change, so that we don't have to spend our project budget dealing with approved changes. So, our answer would be B. Question 46. An issue has been identified and its impact on the project scope needs to be understood.
In which step... of the issue management technique should the impact be understood. If you go back to the issue management technique, the first part of it is to capture the issue and in the capture the issue, you basically just need to try and understand what the issue is all about on its own. understand the issue itself.
But when you get to assess the issue, you need to assess that issue relative to the project environment and its impact on your project. The question is asking us, an issue has been identified and its impact on the project scope needs to be understood. We are now at a point where we need to assess the issue because we can only understand the impacts on the project scope when we start assessing it.
its impact on the business case and the plan at large. So A would be a right answer. Question 47. What is the purpose of the progress practice? A says to forecast whether the stage is on track, to deliver on time, and within budget.
The purpose of the progress is basically that we want to know relative to our plan where we currently are in the project and whether we're on track or not and to forecast whether or not we're likely to meet the expectation that we set ourselves. So A will be our correct answer for this one to forecast whether the stage is on track to deliver on time and within the budget. Question 48. Which should be reviewed by the project board when making the decision about what to do next with the project?
You have your digital and data management approach, that's A. B is your end stage report. C is your highlight report. And D is your check point report.
Generally, the board gets to make a decision about what to do next about a project when they reach the end of a stage boundary. In the stage boundary, they have three key critical documents they usually get. They have the stage plan to tell them what's going to happen in the future.
They have the updated PID which updates the present and tells them how things are at the moment. And they have the end stage report which tells them about the stage that's just finished and how everything goes. So if we look at all the options on there, the only one that will be present within the managing stage boundary where the board gets to review and make a decision about the stage is the end stage report.
If we look at all the other things that are on there, the digital and data management approach is created, of course, during the initiating a project process. The highlight report is created during the controlling stage and the checkpoint report is created within the managing product delivery. The only document there that is created within our stage boundary is end stage report. So our answer will be B. Question number 49. What is the definition of an exception?
A says a forecast that there will be a deviation beyond the agreed tolerance. Basically, that's our answer. In order for there to be an exception, you need to bridge one of the several tolerances.
Only when you breach those tolerances, that's when an exception has been reached and the board could then potentially take over or ask for you to produce an exception plan. So, the definition of exception is a forecast that there will be a deviation beyond their grid tolerance level. And once you forecast that, you need to write an exception report to let the board know. Question 50. How should the use of data and systems support effective progress management? A says by focusing efforts of the project management team on correlating data about what happened in the past.
B says by providing accurate data to assist in predicting future performances. C. By focusing efforts of the project management team on the manual data collection. And D By defining the tolerance against the seven performance targets for each management level. When it comes to using data, you want to use data to support the progress of the team.
So you want something that's going to add value. When we look at A, it says by focusing the efforts of the project management team on collecting data about what has happened in the past. We don't want to focus all our efforts on what happened in the past. Yes, at the start, we look at lessons learned from... previous one, then we move on.
The aim is to create an output not to sit in the past. B says by providing accurate data to assist in predicting future project performance. In particular when we're in a program we might want to use data to look at trends. If it took me 15 days to finish the first part of my stage, based on the amount of work, based on all the data I have, based on my resources, I want to be able to use that to forecast what's likely to happen in the future. And that's a way for the data and system to support effective progress management.
So B will be our correct answer. Question 51. According to the exception management technique, at which level are projects most likely to identify issues that exceed stage tolerance? You have A. Commissioning and directing. Let's walk through that.
Commissioning is the business layer. They don't really do anything between the projects. Directing simply authorizes. So, if there's going to be a breach in tolerance, it's not going to happen but from them. We have directing and managing.
Yes, while this can happen in managing, this is not the most likely combination. Because in directing, one part of our answer, basically, they simply authorize. And while the project manager can exceed his own stage tolerances, there is still another tolerance that could still be exceeded.
So this is one of the most likely outcomes. We also have directing and delivering. Similar problem with B because in directing they are simply authorised.
So they are unlikely to break a tolerance. And finally we have D, managing and delivery. This is the most likely to identify issues that exceed stage tolerances. tolerance because don't forget that in managing the PM as stage tolerance and in delivering the team manager as work package tolerance and a breach of work package tolerance can lead to a breach of stage tolerance.
So the two management process together can lead to is the most likely way you're going to exceed your stage tolerance. So that's your right answer D Question 52. Which is the purpose of the starting of a project process? A says to assess whether the project is likely to be viable to the organization. The purpose of starting a project process is sense checking.
We want to make sure before we spend a whole lot of money that this is a viable project. B says to analyze the work required before committing to implement the project initiation document. This has already gone past startup because if we're talking about project initiation document, we're already in initiating a project process, which is two steps beyond startup. C says to provide opportunities for the users to confirm that they have accepted the project's product. This is closing a project process way too far in the future.
D says to delegate management to the project in a controlled way. Well, that's not the purpose of startup We need to simply check whether this is a good project and whether we should invest more money into it when we get to IP So A is our right answer. Question 53 Which process should ensure that an organization does not proceed to establish solid foundation for unsuitable projects? This harkens back to our question 52. The process that sends checks is the one that makes sure we don't go into solid foundation. If we also say, what is the process that establishes solid foundation, that is initiating a project process?
And the purpose of startup is to make sure we don't enter initiating a project process if the project is unsuitable. So, our answer is starting up a project process, A. Question 54. Which is the purpose of the directing a project process? A says to retain accountability of the project board while delegating detailed management work. This is simply what it is.
Remember the principle manage by exception. The board must be able to delegate the day-to-day work to the project manager whilst retaining overall accountability. That is, as long as you remain within tolerance, I'm okay and you cannot go to the next stage without me.
So every key decision still requires a board authorization. Board will authorize initiation, they will authorize a stage, they will authorize project, they will authorize closure. So they're still able to retain accountability of the process, but they can delegate the detailed work to the project manager.
So A is our correct answer. If we look at some of the other answers that we have here. So, for example, B says to prevent any project with poor justification from being undertaken by the organization.
That's not the purpose of directing a project process. That's startup. C says to manage to work... of a stage by implementing effective corrective action.
This is controlling a stage. So, D says to provide information so that the Commission Authority can commit to delivery of the project. Basically, the project board will have certain things that they give to the Commission Authority so that the project can be done.
But the definition with the purpose of directing a project process is basically to allow accountability by delegating day-to-day work. Question 55. Which two are objectives of the controller stage process? We're looking at the control in the stage process here.
So anything that doesn't fall within control in the stage process, we need to discard it. One says to ensure that there are no uncontrolled changes to the product agreed by the project board. Yes, this you will find within the controller stage as the project manager is there to make sure the work is monitored, is controlled and nothing deviates from what is agreed.
If there's going to be any deviation, he needs to go through through the issue and change control procedure. 2 says to ensure the project board is assured that all products in the stage plan have been completed. If we are looking at all products within the stage plan being completed and we want to inform the board of this, we are already at a managing stage boundary. So 2 is incorrect. 3 says to ensure that the project initiation documentation is updated with any quality changes required for the next stage.
Again, we will only be updating our project initiation documentation as part of the activities that takes place in our managing stage boundary. Therefore, this is incorrect. And four says to ensure that the products delivered during the stage meets the agreed quality criteria.
So this is something that must happen. We remember in the controller stage we're going to be receiving completed work packages and before we can receive completed work packages we need to have gone through the quality review where the the producer, the reviewer, as well as the approver have gone through the process and they've decided this meets the agreed quality criteria in the product description. So the two correct answers there will be 1 and 4. Question 56. Which two are objectives of the direction and project process? We're looking at activities that take place within the directing and project process.
The first one says to ensure that the project is only closed when properly authorised. One of the activities that takes place in the directing and project process is authorised closure. And the project board in the directing and project process must make sure that this happens. Only the directing and project process can close a project. 2. To ensure that post-project benefit reviews have been scheduled.
The board will not authorise directing a project process until they are sure that this activity is already being scheduled. When I look at a third option, it says to ensure that business is ready to use the product after the project goal is closed. This is an objective of closing a project process. And 4. To ensure that users have accepted the product.
This is also an objective of closing a project process. So, 1 and 2 is our answer. Question 57. Which tools are objectives of initiating a project process?
One says to ensure that the project team focuses on delivering the approved product in the stage plan. That is not one of them. That's something that will be happening in the controlling stage. 2. To ensure that the project team is authorised to proceed with initiation stage.
Well, initiation stage is where we have initiated a project process. So, we will have to make sure that they are authorised to do so before we get to the start. point.
Three says to understand how changes to the agreed project product will be approved. So in order to do this we need to make sure we have our issue management approach and this will happen initiating the project process. Forces to plan and estimate the cost of the work to deliver the project. Another document that we will produce during initiating a project process is our project plan.
And here we're going to estimate the cost and how long it will take to do the work. So our answer will be 3 and 4. C. Question 58. Which activity is performed only in managing stage boundary?
A says prepare a replacement for the current stage plan for approval by the project board. This is one of the things that will happen in managing stage boundary. Within the managing stage boundary process, you will write your end stage reports, you will write your next stage plan, and you will update your PID Another activity that could take place within a managing stage boundary is the writing of an exception plan, which is a replacement plan for when your initial stage plan fails.
So, A is our correct answer. Question 59. What is needed to perform the managing stage boundary process? A says the work. of the project needs to be broken down into sections.
B says the stage needs to deliver the project benefit incrementally. And C said the project needs to have a predictable end date. And D says every stage needs to be an exception.
If we walk our way through it, not every stage needs to be an exception. An exception event only happen when you break tolerance. You don't want to be breaking tolerance at every stage.
So no, D is incorrect. C tells us that the project needs to have a predictable ending. Not necessarily. A project can be longer or can be shorter.
And a project can have tolerances. And you might say my stage is going to be one month plus five days, but only use the two days of the five tolerances. And that's not a problem. P says, each stage needs to deliver project benefit incrementally. That is not the case.
There are many delivery approaches that we could use. We could be using a linear approach where the benefits will happen at the end. It is only when we are using incremental and iterative approach that we can expect something like this to happen, but it is not necessary for the PRINCE2 approach.
And A. The work of the project needs to be broken down into sections. Because in the stage boundary we are going to have a going to create our stage plan. So, it is quite critical that we need to use the product-based planning technique.
One of the things that we do in the product-based planning technique is to use a product breakdown structure and that allows us to break down product into sections. So, therefore, A is correct. Question 60. Which action should be taken if a project is closed prematurely?
A says the project manager should still use the closing project process to deal with the situation. If we look at the closing project process, there are two options that you have there. You could have a... plan closure, in which case everything goes smoothly from startup all the way to closing the project process, and you reach a natural end and conclusion to your project.
You could also have a premature closure, in which case something has happened along the way. the way and the project board has decided that they no longer wish to continue with this. But if this were the case, the project manager still needs to make sure that they use the closing project process, round up everything, give the product back, evaluate the projects, and close the projects as needed, as necessary. So A will be our correct answer. Hopefully you haven't gone through the whole video.
You've been able to gain some deep insight into the questions themselves. You're able to understand the question you got right, and now you have the rationale for it. You'll also understand some of the questions you got wrong.
wrong and you understand the reason why you got them wrong. Now, it is advisable to go back, give it a little time, but go back to your mock foundation paper and go through it again. Hopefully by now you'll... score would have improved tremendously. Remember that the exam is a 60 minutes exam and do time yourself.
You also need 60% to pass it, which is 36 out of 60. This is a multiple choice question and I will say rather than aiming for 36, you should be aiming for figures that are above 45 to give yourself sufficient tolerance for the exam itself. After you feel confident that you've gone through both the practice paper mock exam for foundation one, and two you should try then try to book your exam and then go forward to do it. At this point in time I'm confident you have everything you need to pass the exam.
So thank you very much and good luck with your exam.